Based on James's preferences and the conditions offered by the banks, the best checking account for James would be Account A.
<h3>Which account should James pick?</h3>
James would be able to use the ATM as many times as he wants with Account A as they have no ATM fees.
He wouldn't have to pay annual fees, online billing fees, and monthly fees because he is using direct debit. There will also be no overdraft fees as he doesn't overdraft his account. Account A is therefore best.
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A banker's acceptance is the payment guaranteed by a bank for a time draft that is payable to a seller of the goods.
A banker's acceptance is a short-term investment plan that is created by a company or firm with a guarantee from a bank. It is important that the company or firm is a non-financial firm. It is a guarantee that the bank gives that a buyer will pay the seller the amount at a future date. A good rating is a prerequisite for obtaining the banker's acceptance.
This is very useful, especially during foreign trade. During foreign trade, the creditworthiness of the importer is not known. The period of the banker's acceptance is usually lesser than 180 days. These acceptances are traded at discounts from the face value in the secondary markets. So, the banker's acceptance acts as a negotiable time draft.
This guarantee from the bank is a written promise by the bank to the seller to pay the sum specified if the buyer is not able to do so. This promise is backed by the bank so the seller feels confident in exporting his goods. As it is safe and liquid, the return on the banker's acceptance is low.
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Answer:
Equivalent units for direct materials 8,020
Explanation:
To calculate the problem, consider the following information.
Units completed during the year (8200-800) 7,400
+ Ending Work in Process (800*80%) 620
--------------------------------------------
Equivalent units for direct materials 8,020
Answer:
$2,980.4
Explanation:
To find the answer, we use the future value of an investment formula:
FV = PV(1 + i)^n
Where:
- FV = Future value (the result we are looking for
- PV = Present value (the initial values that the question has given us)
- i = interest rat
- n = number of compounding periods
For the first $640:
FV = $640(1 + 0.0760)^1
FV = $688.6
For the $690
FV = $688.6 + $690 (1 + 0.0760)^1
FV = $1,431
For the second $690
FV = $1,431 + $690 (1 + 0.0760)^1
FV = $2,173.4
For the final $750
FV = $2,173.4 + $750 (1 + 0.0760)^1
FV = $2,980.4
So at the end of four years, you will have $2,980.4.
<u>By choosing </u><u>high-risk ventures,</u><u> stockholders steal wealth from bondholders. The incentive for underinvestment is one of </u><u>bankruptcy's</u><u> </u><u>indirect costs. </u>
- Underinvestment would typically lead to - The company rejecting profitable proposals that would unquestionably be approved if the company were fully funded by equity.
How does a company's capital structure get impacted by bankruptcy costs?
- The likelihood of bankruptcy may rise as a result of higher capital expenses and increased risk.
- The company's WACC rises over the ideal level when additional debt is added to its capital structure, raising the cost of bankruptcy even more.
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