Answer
I would stop playing and leave with the $10000 free of tax
Explanation
The truth in such games is that they are not designed to be exactly 50/50. There are possibilities for outcomes that will tie or loose. Furthermore, a game that is really 50/50, the house will deduct some commission. These games always have a room for the house advantage, thus for me, I will just go with $10000 fortune!
Answer:
The value of intermediate goods sold during a period.
Explanation:
GDP: <em>Gross domestic product</em> include the services and the value of finished products in a given period.
However, the <em>intermediary goods </em>aren't accounted for as, there will be an error of double counting. <em>Because </em>when you count for an <em>intermediary good </em>and that good is now <em>finished</em> and part of another good, when you will count that <em>finished good</em>, the value of that intermediary good will be counted also, so this will double the numbers of your <em>GDP </em>and you will make an error.
Government policies specific to the entrepreneurs business is the answer. This is the only external factor.
Answer:
Explanation:
Pretax cost of debt is the annual rate(YTM) of the bond. Using a financial calculator, input the following to calculate it;
N = 5*2 = 10
PV = -(95% *10,000,000) = -9,500,000
Coupon PMT = (6%/2)*10,000,000 = 300,000
FV = 10,000,000
then compute semiannual rate; CPT I/Y = 3.604%
convert to annual rate = 3.604*2 = 7.21%(this is the pretax cost of debt)
After tax cost of debt is calculated because interest payable on debt has tax shield. The formula is as follows;
Aftertax cost of debt = pretax cost of debt (1-tax)
AT cost of debt = 7.21% (1-0.40)
AT cost of debt = 4.33%
Answer: 0.78 pound mark exchange rate
Explanation:
The Purchasing power parity (PPP) is typically used to make comparison between the currencies of different countries' currencies and also used in comparing their standards of living.
According to PPP, the pound-mark exchange rate in 2003 will be calculated as:
= 280/360
= 0.78