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nignag [31]
4 years ago
7

At May 31, 2020, the accounts of Crane Company show the following.

Business
1 answer:
Sever21 [200]4 years ago
7 0

Explanation:

1. Cost of goods manufactured schedule

Beginning work-in-process inventory                                 $15,000

Add:

Direct materials $63,100

Direct labor        $50,900

Manufacturing overhead $42,900

Total manufacturing cost                                                       $156,900

Less: ending work-in-process inventory                              -$16,500

Cost of goods manufactured                                                 $155,400

2. The income statement is presented below:

Sales revenue                                                                         $216,500

Less: Cost of goods sold

Beginning finished goods inventory  $13,200

Cost of goods manufactured              $155,400

Less: Ending finished goods inventory  -$9,800                -$158,800

Gross profit                                                                               $57,700

3. The balance is presented below:

Raw materials       $7,300

Work-in process   $16,500

Finished goods     $9,800

Total inventory      $33,600

             

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goblinko [34]

Answer:

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Bank balance              $59,549      Book balance         $61,709

+ Deposit in transit      $4,250        Interest earned          $33

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balance

8 0
3 years ago
Assume that the fair values of the investee's net assets approximated the recorded book values of the investee's net assets, exc
Andrew [12]

Answer:

I could not find the exact details related to this question so here is a similar question to guide you.

Goodwill = Acquisition Price - Net book value (Investee)

= 75,000 - ( Assets - Liabilities)

= 75,000 - ( 90,000 - 40,000)

= $25,000

Identifiable noncurrent assets is overstated by $10,000 however. This will have to be adjusted for tax and then removed from Goodwill to find the Net goodwill that should be reported in the investor's consolidated balance sheet prepared immediately after this business combination.

= 10,000 ( 1 - 40%)

= $6,000

Net Goodwill = 25,000 - 6,000

<h2>= $19,000</h2>

8 0
3 years ago
Floyd Industries stock has a beta of 1.25. The company just paid a dividend of $.40, and the dividends are expected to grow at 5
stiks02 [169]

Answer:

5.62%

13.75%

Explanation:

According to the DDM method,

the value of a stock = [dividend x ( 1 + growth rate)] / [cost of equity - growth rate]

67 = 0.4(1.05) / r - 0.05

multiply both sides of the equation by r -0.05

67(r - 0.05) = 0.42

divide both sides of the equation by 67

r - 0.05 = 0.006269

r = 0.0563

= 5.63%

b. the cost of equity using the capm method =

risk free rate of return + beta x ( expected return - risk free return)

5% + 1.25 x (12 - 5) = 13.75%

3 0
3 years ago
Who among the following is a manager with good time-management skills?
ioda

Answer:

c. Jonathan, who segregates tasks and classifies them based on priority needs

Explanation:

Time management entails planning and controlling how much time one spends to undertake assigned tasks. Good time management skills increase one's efficiency and productivity.

Phone calls should be scheduled during less productive hours. One should delegate tasks where possible to enable timely completion. It is important to undertake one task at a time in order to be efficient. Tasks should be undertaken based on priority.

Therefore, options a,b and d are incorrect and option c is correct.

7 0
3 years ago
Harte Systems, Inc., a maker of electronic surveillance equipment, is considering selling to a well-known hardware chain the rig
Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The proposed deal calls for the hardware chain to pay Harte $30,000 and $25,000 at the end of years 1 and 2 and to make an annual year-end payments of $15,000 in years 3 through 9. The final payment to Harte of $10,000 would be due at the end of year 10.

1)

Cash flows:

Year 1= 30,000

Year 2= 25,000

Year 3= 15,000

Year 4= 15,000

Year 5= 15,000

Year 6= 15,000

Year 7= 15,000

Year 8= 15,000

Year 9= 15,000

Year 10= 10,000

2) To calculate the present value we need to use the following formula for each cash flow:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

Year 1= 30,000/1.12= 26,785.71

Year 2= 25,000/1.12= 22,321.43

Year 3= 15,000/1.12= 13,392.86

....

Year 10= 10,000/1.12^10= 3,219.73

PV= $104,508.27

3) The present value of cash inflows is higher than $100,000. It is more convenient to decline the $100,000.

4 0
3 years ago
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