1 and 8
because they are exterior angles because they are on the outside and alternate because they are on opposite sides
Answer:
or
.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given : A poker hand consisting of 9 cards is dealt from a standard deck of 52 cards.
The total number of cards in a deck 52
Number of faces cards in a deck = 12
Number of cards not face cards = 40
The total number of combinations of drawing 9 cards out of 52 cards = 
Now , the combination of 9 cards such that exactly 6 of them are face cards = 
Now , the probability that the hand contains exactly 6 face cards will be :-

![=\dfrac{\dfrac{12!}{6!6!}\times\dfrac{40!}{3!37!}}{\dfrac{52!}{9!\times43!}}\ \ [\because\ ^nC_r=\dfrac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}]\\\\=\dfrac{228}{91885}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%3D%5Cdfrac%7B%5Cdfrac%7B12%21%7D%7B6%216%21%7D%5Ctimes%5Cdfrac%7B40%21%7D%7B3%2137%21%7D%7D%7B%5Cdfrac%7B52%21%7D%7B9%21%5Ctimes43%21%7D%7D%5C%20%5C%20%5B%5Cbecause%5C%20%5EnC_r%3D%5Cdfrac%7Bn%21%7D%7Br%21%28n-r%29%21%7D%5D%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D%5Cdfrac%7B228%7D%7B91885%7D)
Hence, the probability that the hand contains exactly 6 face cards. is
.
Step-by-step explanation:
This is the answer.... Working shown
The answer to 3 3/16 divided by 3/8 is 8 1/2. This is because you have to turn the mixed number into an improper fraction and then divide by the method of keep change flip in order to get your answer
The answers are C and also D