1. 2n-6
2(16)-6
32-6
26
p
2. 15g
15(0.2)
3
3. 45g
45(0.2)
9
4. 7m+8
7(2)+8
22
5.50g*50g
10*10
100
Answer:
1000
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
I would say the answer is 40 cookies
Step-by-step explanation:
The reason I say this is because if you write out the amount of cookies she can make with 6 cups of flour, you would get 30/6. 30 and 6 are both divisible by 6, so if you divided both by 6 you will get 5/1. 1 times 8 is 8, so if you multiply 5 by 8 you will get 40 cookies.
Hope this helped!
Answer:
1/3
Step-by-step explanation:
Simplify the following:
((36/2)/(3×9))/2
((36/2)/(3×9))/2 = 36/(3×9×2×2):
36/(3×9×2×2)
36/9 = (9×4)/9 = 4:
4/(3×2×2)
4/2 = (2×2)/2 = 2:
2/(3×2)
2/(3×2) = 2/2×1/3 = 1/3:
Answer: 1/3
