Answer:
$5 million
Explanation:
Calculation for the post-money valuation of your shares
First step is to calculate the total shares outstanding after the venture capitalist's investment:
Total shares = 2 million shares + 1 million shares + 4 million shares
Total shares = 7 million shares
Second step is to calculate the Amount paid by venture capitalist
Using this formula
Amount paid by venture capitalist = Total value / Number of shares purchased
Let plug in the formula
Amount paid by venture capitalist = $5 million / 4 million shares
Amount paid by venture capitalist = $1.25 per share
Last step is to calculate the post-money valuation
Using this formula
Post-money valuation = Amount paid by venture capitalist * Shares subscribed
Let plug in the formula
Post-money valuation = $1.25 * 4 million shares
Post-money valuation = $5 million
Therefore After the venture capitalist's investment, the post-money valuation of your shares is closest to$5 million
Answer:
A. We should expect of the candies in the sample to be orange.(Type an integer or a decimal.)
Answer:
a. debit Depreciation Expense $ 290
credit Accumulated Depreciation $ 290
Explanation:
The depreciation has to be calculated for the month of December i.e one month.
The annual depreciation per the question is $ 3,480 so the monthly depreciation expense is $ 290.
The depreciation expense account is debited, and the credit is to accumulated depreciation account. The equipment account is not credited directly, This is to show the costs and the accumulated depreciation separately.
The equipment on the balance sheet is shown as net of accumulated depreciation.
This is often referred to as the clinical approach. The clinical approach is also known as the threshold approach to clinical decision making. This approach combines rational and quantitative information with a general approach to decision making. In this situation, say you were hiring a new employee, a person using the clinical approach would look at their resume in how they match up with numbers and on paper to the candidate their looking for but also who they are as a person in a general sense.
Answer:
Option A The impact of a change in the local currency on inflow and outflow variables can sometimes be indirect and therefore different from what is expected.
Explanation:
The reason is that the changes in the currency exchange rate in which the company receives the payment and is also not a home currency, such risk exposure is known as economic exposure. So the only option that correct here is option A.
Option B is incorrect because depreciation is non cash item and it is not exposed to currency fluctuations.
Option C and D are also incorrect because domestic firms don't face any economic exposure.
