Answer:
$25,891,632.37
Explanation:
The computation of the market value of the bond in two years is given below:
We know that
Market value of the bonds be in two years is
= pv(rate, nper,pmt,fv)
Here
Nper = 2
PV = ?
PMT = 25000000 × 10% = 2500000
FV = 25000000
Rate = 8%
Now
Market value of the bonds be in two years is
= pv( 8%,2,2500000,25000000)
= $25,891,632.37
Answer:a company's ability to utilize money and workforce when producing goods or offering a service.
Explanation:
Answer: Option C
Explanation: In simple words, revenue variance refers to the difference between the revenue one expects to earn as per the budget made for a specified period of time and the revenue it actually earned in that time.
Organisations calculate revenue variance to identify the reasons they are not performing well or the qualities they are performing more than expected.
This measure helps organisation in decision making as to whether they should make changes in their process, and if so then wheat changes, or should remain as they are.
Answer:
Economic profit will be $40
So option (d) will be correct option
Explanation:
We have given number of units produced = 20 units
Price of per unit = $10 per unit
So revenue = 20×$10 = $200
Revenue :20 units * $10 = 200
Fixed cost is given $100
Variable cost: 20 units ×$3 = 60
So total cost= Fixed cost + Variable cost = 100 + 60 =$160
So economic profit = Revenue - Total cost = 200 - 160 = $40
So option (d) will be correct answer
The primary tool used by the Fed to achieve monetary policy goals is <u>Open Market Operations.</u>
<h3>What are Open Market Operations (OMO)?</h3>
- This refers to the trading of securities by the fed.
- Securities traded include bills, notes, and bonds.
When the fed wants to increase the money supply, they will buy these securities from the public. If it is a decrease they they seek, they will sell securities to the public.
In conclusion, this is Open Market Operations.
Find out more about Open Market Operations at brainly.com/question/14256204.