Answer:
Longly will receive $1,817.43 from selling the bond.
Explanation:
As the coupon rate is 8%; we have annual coupon payment = 2,000 x 8% = $160.
The price of the bond Longly will receive is equal to the present value of 20 annual coupon payment plus the present value of $2,000 face value repayment in 20 years time; with the two streams of cash flow discounting at the market rate at the date of issuing 9%; which is calculated as:
[ ( 160/9%) x [ 1 - 1.09^(-20) ] ] + ( 2,000 / 1.09^20 ) = $1,817.43.
So, the answer is $1,817.43.
Answer:
- Compound Interest ⇒ FV = PV x (1 + I ) ^N
- Simple Interest ⇒ FV = PV x I x N
Explanation:
With compound interest the rate of growth needs to be compounded which is why the time period is used to exponentially adjust it.
With simple interest there is no compounding so the value is simply the interest that will be earned every period (which is a constant value) multiplied by the number of periods and the amount to be invested.
Answer:
correct answer is c. You both have the same amount of money
Explanation:
given data
invest = $1000
pay compound interest = 10%
pay simple interest = 10%
time = 1 year
solution
we get here difference in the total amount that is your friend money - your money .................1
so difference in the total amount = invest × 
- [ invest + ( invest × rate × time) ] ......................2
put here value
difference in the total amount = $1000 × 
- [$1000 + ( 1000 × 10% × 1) ]
difference in the total amount = 0
so correct answer is c. You both have the same amount of money
Answer:
Other things held constant, if a bond indenture contains a call provision, the yield to maturity that would exist without such a call provision will generally be <u>lower than</u> the YTM with a call provision.
Explanation:
That is the correct answer to the question asked about bond indenture.
