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Citrus2011 [14]
3 years ago
12

John is driving the country. He used 75 gallons of gas in 5 days. If he keeps using the gas at the same rate, how many gallons w

ill he use in 8 days?
Answer with supporting work:
Mathematics
1 answer:
Alex Ar [27]3 years ago
7 0
120.

To find out how much gas he is using per day, you can use 75/5 which comes to 15. Then multiplying 15 with the 8 days, you get a sum of 120.
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What multiplied by itself 3 times gives you -216 please answer asap!!!
AlexFokin [52]

Answer:

-6

Step-by-step explanation:

given

x³ = -216

x = (-216)^⅓

factorize

x = [(-6)×(-6)×(-6)]^⅓

x = -6

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Using a Simple Radom Sample of 500 rental property owners in Washington State, a 95% confidence interval estimate of the proport
Feliz [49]

Answer:

Hence the correct option is option d.

Explanation:

We can 95% confident that between 28.1% and 39.2% of all rental property owners own a property by the water.  

Here correct option for interpretation of the 95% confidence interval. The remaining options are about probabilities and sample proportions.

3 0
3 years ago
In order to use a ladder safely, the angle that the ladder forms with the ground should not exceed 70 degree. If you have a ladd
solong [7]

Answer:

Maximum safe height can be reached by ladder = 15.03. ft

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

Let's assume the maximum safe height of wall = h

angle formed between ladder and ground = 70°

length of ladder = 16 ft

From the given data, it can be seen that ladder will form a right angle triangle structure with the wall

So,from the concept of trigonometry,

Sin70^o\ =\ \dfrac{\textrm{maximum safe height of wall}}{\textrm{length of ladder}}

=>Sin70^o\ =\ \dfrac{h}{16\ ft}

=>\ h\ =\ 16\times Sin70^o

=> h = 16 x 0.9396

=> h = 15.03 ft

So, the maximum safe height that can be reached by the ladder will be 15.03 ft.

8 0
3 years ago
Help thanksss. its mutiple choice
Flura [38]

Answer:

Points C,D, E and F are coplanar.

3 0
2 years ago
Why does the multiplicative inverse of a number have the same sign as the number?
denis23 [38]
<span>Look at the definition of multiplicative inverse. If two numbers are multiplicative inverses of each other, then by definition, their product will be equal to 1. And 1 is a positive number. If both numbers being multiplied are positive, then the result is positive. And of both numbers being multiplied are negative, then the result is still positive. But if one number is positive and the other is negative, then the result is negative. So if you want a positive result, then both numbers you're multiplying have to have the same sign. And since we want a result of 1 for multiplicative inverses and since 1 is positive, then the numbers being multiplied have to have the same sign.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
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