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vlada-n [284]
3 years ago
13

Which is not a reason why the Cold War started? A. The U.S. initiated a policy of attacking communism in the Soviet Union. B. Am

ericans feared the growing power of the Soviet Union and worried that communism might spread. C. Both sides began stockpiling nuclear weapons. D. Western democracies could not remain allied with oppressive, totalitarian, communist governments.
History
2 answers:
cestrela7 [59]3 years ago
7 0

The item in your list that is NOT true as a reason behind the Cold War:

<h2>A. The U.S. initiated a policy of attacking communism in the Soviet Union. </h2>

Historical context:

The term Cold War refers to the heightened tension that existed for almost 50 years between the United States and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR).

Some of the deeper issues that set the USA and the USSR at odds were that the USA was committed to capitalism and democratic institutions of government, whereas the USSR was committed to communism and imposed authoritarian government.  The Cold War was mostly a tension between these worldviews.There were also immediate conflicts and pressure points as the Cold War began. One of those issues was that the USA had atomic weapons and the USSR did not.  (The US would not share that technology with the Soviets, who had been their ally in World War II.)  When the Soviets developed their own atomic weaponry, this led to a massive arms race between the superpowers.

uranmaximum [27]3 years ago
3 0

your correct answer is a my good friend

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the answer is a i literally got it correct

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2 years ago
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Otrada [13]

Axis would have probably wiped out most of its West-European enemies. Canada would probably have tried to fight against America and failed, getting its armies crushed, or stayed on the defensive. Hitler would probably have had more troops and peace of  mind tromping around around the Soviet grounds, and would have lost a lot less manpower than when the US actually went to war in the real WWII. Since I'm assuming that in this hypothetical scenario, the US was allied with Japan, Pearl Harbor never happened. Japan and America would both have undisputed hold of the Pacific, with America's (unsunken) battleships and aircraft carriers along with Japanese suprbattleships like the Yamato, and dual force garrisons on the pacific islands. America might have invaded the lower Americas as well, if it didn't stop at securing the border. Mexico might have joined in to help the Axis powers. Then Hitler would still turn on Stalin, still loose an ungodly portion of his army in Russia, get driven back, and start losing the war in the European theatre, at least until axis forces come to back him up, primarily in the form of American Axis soldiers. Then America would lose many men in the Russian front, until it finally invaded Russia somehow (probably after many years and the combined nuclear armaments research being conducted by the US and Nazi Germany.) After invading Russia, Hitler will grow pompous and attempt to invade America with his already weakened force. He would attempt to destroy the remaining American troops in the European/Asian Theatre. America and Japan would probably ally with each other to maintain their hold of the Pacific, and fight back, with a smaller scale D-Day happening (Only made up of Americans) being launched from the invaded and annexed New American Britain or New German Britain or whatever. America would invade Germany, while Germany cannot invade America (see other Quora posts for explanations on why it is virtually impossible to invade America). America ends up with territories and troops spread all across the Pacific, Africa, Russia, Europe, and Asia, with probably troops in Canada and Mexico as well. Consequently, the troops will be brought down through the freedom fighters and rebellions that will ultimately pop up. Hitler shoots himself in the bunker as well.

Lots of bloodshed. Thank god it didn't happen this way! A lot of countries would be utterly in ruins after this version of the World War, not just Poland and Germany and England and Russia and Korea and China (etc.), but who knows how many more countless places. Not to say that I am okay with WWII happening how it did anyway, since it was extremely bloody as well, but... the real WWII was a giant bloody clash of death. This hypothetical one wouldn't have been a clash. It would have been a giant cluster that resulted in possibly twice or three times as many deaths, mostly more civilian deaths in general.

5 0
3 years ago
Why does khayyam most likely use the word ours in the first line of the poem
creativ13 [48]

In <em>Omar Khayyam's "RUBAIYAT OF OMAR KHAYYAM," Edward Fitzgerald </em>noted that pupils of Imam Mowaffak believed that they would all become fabulously rich in this world.

But since there is no certainty in this, the author asks what becomes of the fate of those who could not attain wealthy statuses, despite their strong belief.

Thus, the word<em> "ours" </em>in the first line of the poem refers to the pupils who may fail to become rich, notwithstanding that they <em>strongly believed and hoped</em> for their teacher's lessons to become real in their lives.

Related link: brainly.com/question/17948484

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The third estate should have more political influence.
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