Answer:
339.2925
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
-3
Step-by-step explanation:
p(x) = x^2-6x+5
Let x= 4
p(4) = 4^2-6(4)+5
Exponents first
= 16 -6(4) +5
Multiply
= 16 -24 +5
Add and subtract
= -8+5
= -3
open and see it is the answer
Answer:
3.78
Step-by-step explanation:
Percentage solution with steps:
Step 1: We make the assumption that 9 is 100% since it is our output value.
Step 2: We next represent the value we seek with $x$.
Step 3: From step 1, it follows that $100\%=9$.
Step 4: In the same vein, $x\%=42$.
Step 5: This gives us a pair of simple equations:
$100\%=9(1)$.
$x\%=42(2)$.
Step 6: By simply dividing equation 1 by equation 2 and taking note of the fact that both the LHS
(left hand side) of both equations have the same unit (%); we have
$\frac{100\%}{x\%}=\frac{9}{42}$
Step 7: Taking the inverse (or reciprocal) of both sides yields
$\frac{x\%}{100\%}=\frac{42}{9}$
$\Rightarrow x=466.67\%$
Therefore, $42$ is $466.67\%$ of $9$.
$1,000 would be listed as owner's draw and found in the financing activities.
An owner's draw is a withdrawal of money that the owner of a business or company makes regarding the profits produced by it.
Thus, as long as the owner does not receive a salary (since this corresponds to the employees), these draws are those amounts of money that he withdraws as consideration for his work.
Learn more about accounting in brainly.com/question/11598633
