All I know is 5 and 6.
5. -7 (the picture is the model to draw)
6. -5
The probability that her first treat is jelly is 4/20. Since she eats the candy and does not replace it, the probability the second treat is jelly would be 3/19 (1 less jelly and 1 less total candies). You would then multiply (4/20) by (3/19). That is your answer.
$6.50 I guess, because I added $5 and $1.50 and got $6.50
Answer:
c or d but i think d
Step-by-step explanation: