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Brut [27]
3 years ago
10

Antiques ‘r' us is a mature manufacturing firm. the company just paid a dividend of $12.30, but management expects to reduce the

payout by 5 percent per year, indefinitely. if you require a return of 9 percent on this stock, what will you pay for a share today? (do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places,
e.g., 32.16.) current share price
Business
1 answer:
marishachu [46]3 years ago
5 0

The constant growth model can be used here even if the dividends are decreasing by a persistent percentage, just make sure to distinguish the negative development. So, the computation for the price of the stock today will be:

P= dividend (1 +reduce payout) / (Return–reduce payout)

P= $12.30(1 – 0.05) / [(0.09 – (–0.05)]

P= $11.69 / 0.14

P = $83.46 is the price you will pay for a share today.

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At the end of World War II many European countries were rebuilding and so were eager to buy capital goods and had rising incomes
fenix001 [56]

We would expect that the rebuilding at the end of World War II in many European countries increased aggregate demand for capital goods in <u>a. Both the US and Europe.</u>

<h3>What is aggregate demand?</h3>

Aggregate demand refers to the total demand for goods and services within an economy.

Because of the Marshall Plan initiated by the United States for rebuilding Europe after the Second World War, aggregate demand increased in both the United States and Europe.

<h3>Answer Options:</h3>

a. Both the US and Europe

b. The US, but not Europe

c. Europe, but not the US

d. Neither the US nor Europe

Thus, the rebuilding at the end of World War II in many European countries increased aggregate demand for capital goods in <u>a. Both the US and Europe.</u>

Learn more about aggregate demand at brainly.com/question/1490249

8 0
2 years ago
On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
Question 17 of 20
Hoochie [10]

Answer: A microcomputer is a small computer that contains a microprocessor as its central processor.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Venzuela Company’s net income for 2020 is $50,000. The only potentially dilutive securities outstanding were 1,000 options issue
aev [14]

Answer:

$4.67 per share

Explanation:

The calculation of the diluted earning per share is given below:

= (Total income - preference dividends) ÷ (outstanding shares + diluted shares)

where,

Total income is $50,000

Outstanding shares is 10,000

And, the diluted shares is computed by following calculations

Amount paid towards shares = Options issued × Exercise price per share

= 1,000 × $6

= $6,000

And,

Value of options = Amount paid towards shares ÷ Current market price

= $6,000 ÷ $20

= 300

Therefore,

Diluted shares is

= Options issued - value of options

= 1,000 - 300

= 700

So Diluted Earnings per share is

= ($50,000) ÷ (10,000 + 700)

= $4.67 per share

4 0
3 years ago
The U.S. Post Office charges 40 cents for the first ounce and 25 cents per ounce for each additional ounce. Use an inequality to
Leni [432]

Answer:

15 ounces.

Explanation:

The first ounce is worth 0.40, and the additional x ounces are worth 0.25 each. So, the inequality should be Y > A + B * X, where Y is equal to 4, A is the value of the first ounce (0.4), B is the value of the additional ounces (0.25) and x is the quantity of additional ounces.

  • 4 > 0.4 + x * 0.25
  • 4 - 0.4 > 0.25x
  • 3.6/0.25 > x
  • 14,4 > x

14 is the maximum of additional ounces that can be mailed, we have to add the first one, for a total of 15 whole ounces that can be mailed for no more than $4.

8 0
3 years ago
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