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kykrilka [37]
3 years ago
7

Write the equation of the line that passes through the points (3, 6) and (5, 18) using function notation.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Sergio039 [100]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The first part is incorrect, The actual answer is:

B: f(x)=6x-12

I took the test, trust me!

Step-by-step explanation:

V125BC [204]3 years ago
6 0
D. y = 6x - 12 is the answer
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1 minus 5/6 and simplify answer
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

1-5/6 is 1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

say you have 1 pie, It is sliced into 6 pieces and you take 5, only 1 would be left. (hope this helps Good luck ;))

7 0
3 years ago
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PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE HELP I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST
Marat540 [252]

Answer:

y >  6x -100  

Step-by-step explanation:

the slope intercept equation of the line is

y=mx+b

m is the slope = (y2-y1) / (x2-x1) so between the y-intercept (0,-100) and the given point (25, 50) we have m= -100-50/0-25 = -150/-25 = 6

y= 6x -100

now we have to figure the inequqlity part so take point (0, 0) that belongs to the solution and substitute in the equation

0 = 6*0 -100

0 = -100  for the equation to be true we have to make it 0 > -100, we also need to make it NOT greater or equal then because the line is doted not solid  so the inequality is

y >  6x -100  

4 0
3 years ago
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Identify a possible first step using the elimination method to solve the system and then find the solution to the system.
JulsSmile [24]
The correct answer is D
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3 years ago
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For each given p, let ???? have a binomial distribution with parameters p and ????. Suppose that ???? is itself binomially distr
pshichka [43]

Answer:

See the proof below.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming this complete question: "For each given p, let Z have a binomial distribution with parameters p and N. Suppose that N is itself binomially distributed with parameters q and M. Formulate Z as a random sum and show that Z has a binomial distribution with parameters pq and M."

Solution to the problem

For this case we can assume that we have N independent variables X_i with the following distribution:

X_i Bin (1,p) = Be(p) bernoulli on this case with probability of success p, and all the N variables are independent distributed. We can define the random variable Z like this:

Z = \sum_{i=1}^N X_i

From the info given we know that N \sim Bin (M,q)

We need to proof that Z \sim Bin (M, pq) by the definition of binomial random variable then we need to show that:

E(Z) = Mpq

Var (Z) = Mpq(1-pq)

The deduction is based on the definition of independent random variables, we can do this:

E(Z) = E(N) E(X) = Mq (p)= Mpq

And for the variance of Z we can do this:

Var(Z)_ = E(N) Var(X) + Var (N) [E(X)]^2

Var(Z) =Mpq [p(1-p)] + Mq(1-q) p^2

And if we take common factor Mpq we got:

Var(Z) =Mpq [(1-p) + (1-q)p]= Mpq[1-p +p-pq]= Mpq[1-pq]

And as we can see then we can conclude that   Z \sim Bin (M, pq)

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3 years ago
Solve the equation: f(x) = 3r - 2x +5
Aleks04 [339]
X= 3r+5/2 is the answer I believe
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