Answer:
$9,287.63
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Amount invested = $60,000
Operating cost for the first year = $4000
Operating and maintaining cost after 1 year = $3,000
Selling price = $60,000
Now,
Amount paid extra in the year 1 = $4,000 - $3,000
= $1,000
EUAC ($)
= $60,000 × A/P(10%, 4) + $3,000 + $1,000 × P/F(10%, 1) × A/P(10%, 4) - [ $60,000 × P/F(10%, 4) × A/P(10%, 4) ]
= [ $60,000 × 0.3155 + 3,000 + 1,000 × 0.9091 × 0.3155 ] - [ 60,000 × 0.6830 × 0.3155 ]
= [ $18,930 + $3,000 + $286.82 ] - [ $12,929.19 ]
= $9,287.63
If you need to indicate the missing ammount of each letter in the grahp then it will be like follows:
For the first case:
A = $9,600 + $5,000 + $8,000 = $22,600$22,600 + $1,000 – B = $17,000
B = $22,600 + $1,000 – $17,000 = $6,600$17,000 + C = $20,000
C = $20,000 – $17,000 = $3,000
D = $20,000 – $3,400 = $16,600
<span>E = ($24,500 – $2,500) – $16,600 = $5,400
</span><span>F = $5,400 – $2,500 = $2,900
</span>And now for the second case:
G + $8,000 + $4,000 = $16,000
G = $16,000 – $8,000 – $4,000 = $4,000$16,000 + H – $3,000 = $22,000
H = $22,000 + $3,000 – $16,000 = $9,000(I – $1,400) – K = $7,000(I – $1,400) – $22,800 = $7,000
<span>I = $1,400 + $22,800 + $7,000 = $31,200
</span>J = $22,000 + $3,300 = $25,300
K = $25,300 – $2,500 = $22,800$7,000 – L = $5,000
<span>L = $2,000</span>
Answer:
Before tax cost of debt is 7.12%
After tax cost of debt is 4.27%
Cost of equity is 10%
Explanation:
The before-tax cost of debt can be determined using excel rate formula as found below:
=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)
nper is the number of semiannual payments the bond has i.e 20*2=40
pmt is the amount of semiannual payment=$1000*7.5%*6/12=$ 37.50
pv is the current price =$1000*104%=$1,040.00
fv is the face value of $1000
=rate(40,37.50,-1040,1000)=3.56%
The 3.56% is semiannual yield, hence 7.12% per year (3.56%*2)
After-tax cost of debt=7.12%*(1-t) where is the tax rate of 40% or 0.4
after-tax cost of debt=7.12%*(1-0.40)=4.27%
Cost of equity is determined using the below CAPM formula:
Ke=Rf+Beta*(Mr-Rf)
Rf is the risk free rate of 4%
Beta is 1.2
Mr is the market return of 9%
Ke=4%+1.2(9%-4%)=10.00%
Answer:
Utilization.
Explanation:
The measure that captures the use of a fixed asset in serving customers relative to the asset's capacity is known as the utilization rate.
This ultimately implies that, a utilization rate measures or estimates the level of output a fixed asset produces relative or in comparison with it's capacity.
Generally, the utilization rate is usually measured in proportions and displayed in percentages so as to gather information about organizational cost structure and operational efficiency.
Answer: $8,391.90
Explanation:
So the company borrowed $40,000 from a bank.
They are to pay 7% interest on the note per year for 6 years.
We are to find the annual payments.
7% represents a constant payment schedule per year so we can use an Annuity formula.
Seeing as the Annuity factor has been calculated for us already we don't need to formula though.
The present value of an annuity factor for 6 years at 7% is 4.7665.
Calculating the present value of the annual payment can be done as follows,
= Amount / PVIFA (Present Value Interest Factor for an Annuity)
= 40,000/4.7665
= 8391.90181475
= $8,391.90
The annual payments equal $8,391.90.
