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Ksju [112]
3 years ago
11

What is one example of how a government exhibits limited influence in a market economy?

Business
1 answer:
Gekata [30.6K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: I would choose the 3rd choice.

Explanation:the creation of privately-owned businesses

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What is approximate debt of the United States right now
Olenka [21]

Answer:

$27 trillion.

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A company uses the percent of sales method to determine its bad debts expense. At the end of the current year, the company's una
ollegr [7]

Answer:

Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $4,900

           To Allowance for doubtful debts  $4,900

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below;

Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $4,900

           To Allowance for doubtful debts  $4,900

(Being bad debt expense is recorded)

The computation of the bad debt expense is shown below:

= Net Credit sales × estimated percentage given  - credit balance of allowance for doubtful debts

= $920,000 × 0.6%  - $620

= $5,520 - $620

= $4,900

6 0
3 years ago
Inflation is when _________ money is paid for the same amount of goods and services than in a previous time period. the same amo
Kisachek [45]

Answer:

More

Explanation:

Use google

6 0
3 years ago
Tiny went back to his office after the meeting and began to crunch the numbers on the rapid inflator. At a price of $10 per unit
Artist 52 [7]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

<u> Part A </u>-   Inflatable divisions's Current Return on Investment = Yearly Earnings / Investment Cost * 100

There the Inflatable Division is Currently Earning $ 250,000 annually from an Asset base of $ 1,250,000

Therefore, ROI = 250000 / 1250000 * 100=20 \%

<u>Part B -   </u>Let the maximum variable cost be X.

Given that - 1. Selling Price per Unit = $10 , 2. No of Units to be produced = 40000 , 3. Annual Fixed Cost = $ 140000

Therefore ,   ROI = Current Earning + New Earning / Current Assets + New Assets

20% = 250000+[(10-\mathrm{X}) * 40000-\underline{140000}] / 1250000+100000

Solve for X getting, X = 6

Therefore maximum variable cost it can incur without change in current ROI is $ 6 per unit  

Resulting Contribution Margin per Unit = SP - VC = $10 minus $6 = $4 per unit

<u> part C -</u>   Minimum Transfer Lightning division Should charge

Given Information - Capacity of Lightning division is 150000 units and Utilized capacity is 135000 units. Therefore Spare capacity is 15000 units .Also Market Price of Product of Lightning division is $ 5 and Variable cost is $3 per unit.

So for the First 15000 units of Requirement of Inflatable division - Transfer Price should be Variable cost i.e $ 3 per unit because Lightning division has spare capacity in this.

For the next 25000 units of requirement of Inflatable division - Transfer Price should be Market Price i.e $ 5 per unit as Lightning division has to reduce is external sale.

Therefore Minimum TP = 15000 * 3+25000 * 5 / 40000=\$ 4.25 per Unit

<u>Part D -  </u>No, Here Tiny offers to transfer $4 ( $6 - $2 ) per unit to Lightning division. However  the minimum TP Lightning should get is 4.25 per unit and if less than this TP is offered by Tiny it will lead to loss in the Lightning Division.

3 0
3 years ago
The ____ act criminalized securities fraud and stiffened penalties for corporate fraud.
Arte-miy333 [17]
I believe this is the Sarbanes Oxley act
3 0
3 years ago
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