First you chang top fractions into decimal add and divide that by 4 which is equal to 0.375 hope it helps.
No it isn't.
Explanation:
x/y * y = (y-6) * y
x = y^2 - 6y
A function gives just one y for every x
In this case there will always be 2 y's for every x
Example:
y can be
y = 6
or
y =−6
(0,-6) & (0,6)
To find the percent you would divide 591 by 2364
591/2364=.25
.25*100 = 25%
Does that make sense?
8/29. Please vote my answer brainliest! Thanks.
25r^2-4 rewriten in standard polynomial form
