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Maru [420]
3 years ago
9

Warner Corporation purchased a machine 7 years ago for $405,000 when it launched product P50. Unfortunately, this machine has br

oken down and cannot be repaired. The machine could be replaced by a new model 300 machine costing $396,350 or by a new model 200 machine costing $349,800. Management has decided to buy the model 200 machine. It has less capacity than the model 300 machine, but its capacity is sufficient to continue making product P50. Management also considered, but rejected, the alternative of dropping product P50 and not replacing the old machine. If that were done, the $349,800 invested in the new machine could instead have been invested in a project that would have returned a total of $450,600.
Required:
1. What is the total differential cost regarding the decision to buy the model 200 machine rather than the model 300 machine?
2. What is the total sunk cost regarding the decision to buy the model 200 machine rather than the model 300 machine?
3. What is the total opportunity cost regarding the decision to invest in the model 200 machine?
1. Differential cost
2. Sunk cost
3. Opportunity cost
Business
1 answer:
maxonik [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

1. $46,550

2. $405,000

3. $450,600

Explanation:

1. Computation of differential cost regarding the decision to buy the model 200

Differential cost = Cost of a new model 300 - Cost of a new model 200

Differential cost = $396,350 - $349,800

Differential cost = $46,550

So, the differential cost regarding decision to buy model 200 is $46,550.

2. Sunk costs are the costs which are already incurred by the entity in the past and which are not relevant to decision made today. In this case, sunk cost is the cost of the machine purchased seven years ago for $405,000.

3. Opportunity cost is the profit forgone by chosen alternative course of action. In this case, the Opportunity cost regarding the decision to invest in the model 200 machine is $450,600.

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What were the origins of the Asian currency crisis?
valina [46]

Answer:

East and South east Asia

Explanation:

The crisis that later blew up to become a financial crisis over the year started from the east and south east Asia countries of Thailand , Indonesia and South korea in 1997 before spreading to other counties  leading to a fall  in value of the currencies ,and fall in stock market and assets prices as the exchange rate continued to nosedive.

It was sparked up by the inappropriate borrowing by the private sector in the previous years

8 0
2 years ago
Contingent Liabilities must have the following criteria (select all that apply): Select one or more: A. The obligation is certai
Leya [2.2K]

Answer: Option B and C

                                     

Explanation: In simple words , contingent liabilities refers to the liabilities the occurrence of which depends on the happening of an event that may or may not occur in the future.

These are recorded in the accounts only when  the payment is to be made in future and that payment could be reasonably estimated.

Hence the correct option is B and C

3 0
3 years ago
A company reports basic earnings per share of $5.10, cash dividends per share of $2.05, and a market price per share of $65.55.
Radda [10]

Answer:

3.13%

Explanation:

The dividend yield refers to the payment by a company to its shareholders for their shareholding divided by current stock price of the company. This is usually expressed as a percentage and can be calculated for this question as follows:

Dividend yield = Dividends per share (DPS) ÷ Market price per share (MPS) = $2.05 ÷ $65.55 = 0.0313, or 3.13%.  

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
There are 300 purely competitive farms in the local dairy market. of the 300 dairy farms, 298 have a cost structure that generat
Stells [14]

Answer:

The percentage rate of return for these 298 dairies is 6%

Explanation:

The percentage rate of return is calculated by dividing the profits by total investment, so the given information in the question is,

profits = $18

investment = $300

percentage rate of return = 18/300 = 0.06 = 6%

4 0
3 years ago
If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4
Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0
2 years ago
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