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Elis [28]
4 years ago
9

If f(x) = sin(ln(2x)), then f’(x)=

Mathematics
1 answer:
Rudiy274 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B. cos(ln(2x))/x

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the inverse of sin is cosine. Note, arcsin means the same thing as inverse sin:

  • sin(ln(2x))

              Because sin (a) = sin (b) --> a = arcsin (b)

  • Therefore: ln(2x) = arcsin(y)
  • Solve ln(2x)=arcsin(y) for x
  • (e^arcsin(y))/2

              Subsitute y = x

  • (e^arcsin(x))/2
  • Therefore, we get the answer as cos(ln(2x))/x
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