See photo for solution and mark me as brainliest if you think i helped!
37:prime 65:composite 71:composite 82:composite
If we are talking about whole numbers, the only number in between 1 and 3 is 2 but if we are talking about numbers in general, there are an infinite amount of numbers (for example, 1.1, 1.12, 1.004, and 1.80543285 are all in between 1 and 3).
Answer:
the probability of getting exactly 2 fours is 0.16
Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of obtaining a number that is four = ¹/₆
The probability of obtaining a non 4 number = 1 - ¹/₆ = ⁵/₆
The number of ways 2 fours can be arrange in five numbers = ⁵C₂ = 10 ways
If the die is tossed five times, the probability of the events is calculated as;
P = 10 x (¹/₆)² x (⁵/₆)³
P = 10 x (¹/₃₆) x (¹²⁵/₂₁₆)
P = 10 x 0.02778 x 0.5787
P = 0.16
Therefore, the probability of getting exactly 2 fours is 0.16
Answer: it seems to be D, but the equation makes practically no sense!
The value of the factor changes for the different amounts of service years and vacation weeks.
Step-by-step explanation: The equation means that the employee is trying to figure out the value of the "v-factor" for how vacation time is earned.
If you substitute the number of service years into the left side of the "formula" and vacation weeks on the right side, then solve for "v", v(15)=5 you get v= 1/3 or 0.33
If you substitute other numbers, like v(2)=2, so v= 1 then v(30) = 8, v = 4/15 or 0.2667. You see the factor's value decreases. The company is much more generous to to employees with one or two years of service than with the older ones.