Incurring actual indirect factory wages in excess of budgeted amounts for actual production results in a controllable variance. Therefore, the option B holds true.
<h3>What is the significance of controllable variance?</h3>
Controllable variance can be referred to or considered as a variance that computes the difference between the actual quantity and the budgeted quantity sold or consumed by a firm in an economy. It can never be deficit, and is always in surplus of the budgeted amounts.
Therefore, the option B holds true and states regarding the significance of controllable variance.
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The question seems to be incomplete. It has been added below for better reference.
Incurring actual indirect factory wages in excess of budgeted amounts for actual production results in a:
a. quantity variance
b. controllable variance
c. volume variance
d. rate variance
Compared to a perfectly competitive firm, the demand schedule of a monopolistically competitive firm faces <u>downward-sloping demand curves</u>.
A monopolistic market is a theoretical situation that describes a marketplace in which only one agency might also provide products and services to the public. A monopolistic market is the other of a perfectly competitive marketplace, in which an endless variety of companies function.
Monopolistic opposition exists while many businesses offer competing products or services which might be similar, but not best, substitutes. The barriers to access in a monopolistic competitive industry are low, and the choices of anyone firm do now not directly have an effect on its competition.
A monopoly has management over the supply of the product but though it can are seeking to influence the demand, it does not have management over it. In truth, a monopoly has to make a preference. it may set the price, but then it has to just accept the extent of income, consumers is prepared to buy at that fee.
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Answer:
Depletion expenses for the first year is $210736.840
Explanation:
Depletion expenses= (Cost of coal mine - residual value) / Total tons of coal * tons extracted
=(1,001,000 - $0) / 57,000 tons * 12,000 tons
=$210736.8421
=$210736.840
Answer:
trim ratio = 1.15 and bearish
Explanation:
given data
stock = 1,455
decline = 1,553
volume in advancing issues = 852581
volume in declining issues = 1,058312
solution
we get here the trim ration is express here as
trim ratio = (stock ÷ decline) ÷ ( advancing issues ÷ declining issues ) ...............................1
put here value and we get trim ratio
trim ratio =
solve it we get '
trim ratio = 1.15
and here we see trim is greater than 1 so
it is bearish