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aev [14]
3 years ago
11

Heather has lost 30 pounds and kept it off for 6 years. she is currently in the ________ stage of change in regard to weight los

s.
Business
1 answer:
Zielflug [23.3K]3 years ago
5 0
I believe the answer is Termination <span>stage of change in regard to weight loss.
During the termination stage, the transformation is already complete and is very unlikely that heather will revert back to her old habbit.
In behavioral change like this, average people achieved termination stage after making an effort for 24 months or more.</span>
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An investment banker agrees to underwrite an issue of 10 million shares of stock for TWResearch, Inc. on a firm commitment basis
tatuchka [14]

Answer: b) Loss of $7,500,000.

Explanation:

The total the investment bank paid when underwriting was:

= 10.50 * 10,000,000 shares

= $105,000,000

The total they then sell to the public is:

= 9.75 * 10,000,000

= $97,500,000

The profit is:

= Selling revenue from public - Buying cost from company

= 97,500,000 - 105,000,000

= -$7,500,000

4 0
3 years ago
Two investment advisers are comparing performance. One averaged a 19% return and the other a 16% return. However, the beta for t
finlep [7]

Answer: Adviser B is the superior stock selector.

Explanation:

For the comparision between the two investment advisers, the Jenson's Alpha will be utilized.

Jenson's Alpha:

= Portfolio Actual Return - CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio Return)

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 6%

Market return(E(Em) = 14%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1.5 (14-6)

= 6 + 12

= 18%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 18% = 1%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 6 + 1(14-6) = 6 + 1(8) = 14%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 14% = 2%

Adviser B is a better selector because he has a larger alpha of 2% compared to Adviser A who has 1%.

T Bill Rate(Risk free rate) = 3%

Market return(E(Rm) = 15%

Beta of Investment Adviser A = 1.5

Beta of Investment Adviser B = 1

For Adviser A:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1.5 (15-3)

= 3 + 18

= 21%

Actual Return = 19%

Jenson's Alpha = 19% - 21% = -2%

For Adviser B:

CAPM = Risk free return + Beta ( E(Rm) - Risk free return)

CAPM(Benchmark Portfolio) = 3 + 1(15-3) = 3 + 1(12) = 15%

Actual Return = 16%

Jenson's Alpha = 16% - 15% = 1%

Given the changes, Adviser B is still the better selector because he has a larger alpha of 1% compared to Adviser A who has -2%.

7 0
3 years ago
______ segmentation delves into how consumers actually describe themselves
andrezito [222]
Psychographic, <span>Segmentation is a method that delves into how consumers actually describe themselves, their attitudes, interests and activities.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Mervon Company has two operating departments: mixing and bottling. Mixing occupies 23,045 square feet. Bottling occupies 18,855
fiasKO [112]

Answer:

Mixing= $112,000

Bottling= $91,800

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Mixing occupies 23,045 square feet

Bottling occupies 18,855 square feet.

Total sq= 41,900

Indirect factory costs include maintenance costs of $204,000.

First, we need to calculate the proportion of square feet for each department:

Mixing= 23,045/41,900= 0.55

Bottling= 18,855/41,900= 0.45

Now, we can allocate overhead:

Mixing= 0.55*204,000= $112,000

Bottling= 0.45*204,000= $91,800

7 0
4 years ago
Assume a major investment service has just given Oasis Electronics its highest investment rating, along with a strong buy recomm
ruslelena [56]

Answer:

Share price : $ 56.23

Explanation:

CAPM

Ke= r_f + \beta (r_m-r_f)

risk free = 0.05

market rate = 0.11

premium market = (market rate - risk free) 0.06

beta(non diversifiable risk) = 1.64

Ke= 0.05 + 1.64 (0.06)

Ke 0.14840

Now, we solve for the present value of the future dividends:

year   dividend*     present value**

1  2.91                 2.53

2  3.31                 2.51

3  3.78         2.49

4  4.31                 2.48

4   80.38          46.22

TOTAL            56.23

*Dividends will be calculate as the previous year dividends tiems the grow rate

during the first four year is 14%

then, we calcualte the present value of all the future dividends growing at 9% using the dividend grow model:

\frac{D_1}{K_e-g}

(4.31 x 1.09) / (0.1484 - 0.09) = 80.38

Then we discount eahc using the present value of a lump sum:

\frac{Cashflow}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

We discount using the CAPM COst of Capital of 14.84%

last we add them all to get the share price: $ 56.23

4 0
4 years ago
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