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valentina_108 [34]
3 years ago
12

In the T-bill secondary market the ask yield will normally be less than the bid yield. True or False

Business
1 answer:
Digiron [165]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

Treasury moved from a competitive pricing market to a specific price offer, since the latter reduced investor's average sale price and investors want Treasury bill in less than their bid value

If treasury bill goes to sell in secondary market then investors wants to get their investment back , that's why treasury bill yield less than normally yield.

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Savant Homes, Inc., is a custom home designer and builder. Using what it called the Anders Plan, Savant built a model house in W
nevsk [136]

Answer and Explanation:

There is no copyright infringement here. Savant homes had not taken a copyright protection for the design prior to this time. Also in the case it was found that the design is not in fact a unique design by Savant homes as it is used widely and was common before savant homes used it. And so it was a dummy model for everyone to copy from. Therefore the infringement was considered invalid as there was no ground for savant homes to claim it as am intellectual property

5 0
3 years ago
Two companies share a market, in which they currently make $5,000,000 each. Both need to determine whether they should advertise
snow_tiger [21]

Answer: Please refer to Explanation.

Explanation:

Two Companies. We shall call them A and B.

If A and B decide not to advertise, they both get $5,000,000.

If A advertises and B does not then A captures $3 million from B at a cost of $2 million meaning their payoff would be,

= 5 million - 2 million + 3 million

= $6 million.

A will have $6 million and B will have $2 million as $3 million was captured from them. This scenario holds true if B is the one that advertises and A does not.

If both of them Advertise, they both reduce their gains by $2 million while capturing $3 million from each other so they'll essentially both have just $3 million if they both decide to advertise.

With the above scenarios, it is better for both companies to ADVERTISE if there is NO COLLUSION. This is because it ensures that they do not get the lowest payoff of $2 million if the other company decides to advertise and they do not.

However, if they DO COLLUDE. They must both decide that NONE of them SHOULD ADVERTISE and this would leave them with their original $5 million each which is a higher payoff than the $3 million they will both receive if they were both advertising.

3 0
3 years ago
Why would a producer decide to produce in a competitive market in which she will earn zero profit in the long run? Choose one: A
zhenek [66]

Answer:

Option A : Because at zero profit, with her revenue, she can cover all her costs—explicit and implicit (opportunity cost).

Explanation:

Perfectly Competitive Market

This is simply a market the market participants are said to be price takers that is no consumption decisions by individual consumers and no production decisions by individual producers can be able to affect the market price of a good.

Perfectly Competitive Industry

This is simply an industry where producers are said to be price takers.

Explicit Costs

These are costs that are simply known as "out-of-pocket" costs or in accounting costs. They are an individual's fixed and variable costs of doing business.

Implicit Costs

These are costs that do not partains to monetary payment as they are the opportunity costs of doing business.

It is said that at zero profit, the revenue covers all the costs, including the implicit ones. The fact that her implicit costs are covered shows that no outside option or opportunity that is superior to the zero economic profit option is chosened.

4 0
3 years ago
The board of directors of pilgrim company authorizes a $100,000 restriction of retained earnings for a future plant expansion. t
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

It will reduce the amount of dividiends it can pay.

Explanation:

As there is an amount of the retained earnings that is restricted the company cannot use them to pay up neither stock or cash dividends in the future.

The retained earnings are used to pay dividends but also, are part of the equity of the firm thus the RE count to the capital structure of the company . Loans can be obtained with better rates if thecapital structure is more based on equiy than in liabilities thus, the board of directors is planning ahead the future plant exansion avoiding to use cash and deteriorate his capital structure to pay up dividends.

6 0
4 years ago
The previous value of a portfolio that must be regained before a hedge fund can charge their investors performance fees is known
Margarita [4]

Answer:

high watermark

Explanation:

A high watermark refers to the mark at which the investment could be reached at a high peak. It to be calculated on that date when the performance fees are charged and it could be charged only on that case when there is a rise in the value of the portfolio

Moreover,  in the high watermarks there is no need to pay the performance based fee when there is a poor performance

Therefore the given situation represent the high watermark

4 0
3 years ago
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