Answer:
a. callahanb
Explanation:
Conservative investment strategy means investing in a less risky asset so the there is certain cash flow . Investment in govt bonds or treasury bills or company debentures etc of good rating are example of conservative investment strategy.
Old timers should opt for conservative investment . It is so because their risk bearing capacity is low. They can be reined in case of any windfall loss .
They have fixed liability in the form of medical expenses etc.
On the other hand youngsters have no such fixed liability . So they go for some risky alternative to take advantage of risk premium.
Answer:
The correct answer is: b. flexible manufacturing systems, total quality management, and information networks.
Explanation:
A Flexible Manufacturing System or FMS is a group of interconnected workstations through an automated material transport system. The transport system, as well as other storage systems that can be used, must be automatic. The whole set is controlled by computer
It is known as total quality management to a business management strategy that consists of the study and assessment of the concept of quality in each of the phases of an organizational process. Its purpose is the constant improvement of goods and services offered and the achievement of greater customer satisfaction.
Answer:
The correct answer is d. Different economic models employ different sets of assumptions.
Explanation:
To approach the study of economic reality it is necessary, in some way, to simplify it; keep certain variables under control. Precisely for this, it is that economic models are built.
Economic models are built on principles of departure, called "assumptions." Such assumptions fulfill the same role as the postulates in geometry. That is:
- They are not subject to deduction from other more basic principles.
- They are "reasonably" true but not necessarily verifiable.
- They function as premises in the logical structure to deduce the conclusions and correlations found in the lowest levels of generality.
We can say then, that the theoretical explanations refer to invisible "relationships", whose existence is proposed by the theory, and whose implications are logically deduced, and then corroborated by observations. They consist of:
- Assumptions (eg subjects want to maximize their earnings).
- Relevant variables (eg price and quantity).
- Binding hypothesis (eg quantity demanded based on price).
- Conclusions or predictions of observable facts (eg prices will rise).
The variance analysis cycle<u> C. begins with the preparation of </u><u>performance reports</u><u>.</u>
<h3>What is a performance report?</h3>
A performance report is at the heart of the variance analysis cycle.
The performance report details the following:
- Calculates the difference between actual and budgeted expenditure and revenue.
- Analyzes the differences into various variances, determining if they are favorable or unfavorable or have no effects.
- Investigates the reasons for the differences.
- Puts the information together and reports to management.
Thus, the variance analysis cycle<u> C. begins with the preparation of </u><u>performance reports</u><u>.</u>
Learn more about performance reports and variances at brainly.com/question/13287252
Answer:
$267.1211
Explanation:
return on preference share per unit is $6 , thus at 12% annual rate of return. Initial value of preference shares will be $50 per unit ( $6 divided by 12%).
Total value of preference shares = $50 multiplied by 100 preference shares = $5000
Future value of preference shares = 5000 (1.12)^5 = $8,811.7084
to find the value of money to be deposited to be able to buy the preference shares at the end of 5 yrs.
we work back to get the present value using the mutual fund annual rate
$8811.7084 = pv (1.06)^60 the rate is compounded monthly. Hence we shall compound the return 60 times in 5 years
Bank account money = 8811.7084 divided by 32.9877 = $267.1211
