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Free_Kalibri [48]
3 years ago
11

Which correlation is used to measure and describe monotonic relationships when both variables are ranks from an ordinal score or

have been transformed to ranks?
Mathematics
1 answer:
lozanna [386]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The answer is - Spearman correlation.

Step-by-step explanation:

The correlation that is used to measure and describe monotonic relationships when both variables are ranks from an ordinal score or have been transformed to ranks is - Spearman correlation.

The Spearman correlation coefficient measures the direction of association and strength between the two ranked variables.

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Write this rate as a unit rate 7/5 over 2/3
Juli2301 [7.4K]

Answer:

no i dont want too

Step-by-step explanation:

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6 0
3 years ago
Convert 2 <br> 3<br> 4<br> cups to pints.<br> 2 cups = 1 pint
denis-greek [22]

Answer:

  1 3/8 pints

Step-by-step explanation:

  (2 3/4 cups) × (1 pint)/(2 cups) = 1 3/8 pints

_____

Units conversion is conveniently done using a fraction that is equal to 1: its numerator and denominator express the same quantity, but in different units. The units are chosen so that after unwanted units are cancelled, you end up with the desired units.

7 0
3 years ago
Errol collected some figures that he calls sukies. Which figure is a sukie?​
svetoff [14.1K]

Its non of the above. Though I did have a question like that, if there is a choice below the square, that has the following properties, that must be the answer:

7 sides

1 right angel

______________________________________________________

But if you are talking about it being 1 of the 2, its non of the 2 that is in the picture. The option below square must be the answer if I am right according to what I had.

Hope it helps ! The things that I told you about the figure is the only way I can tell you. Sorry, but have a great day and good luck.

5 0
3 years ago
Can anyone help me with this? I will mark you as brainliest
Nana76 [90]

Answer:

2/7

then 2/14

Step-by-step explanation:

Let P(H)=p be the probability of one head. In many scenarios, this probability is assumed to be p=12 for an unbiased coin. In this instance, P(H)=3P(T) so that p=3(1−p)⟹4p=3 or p=34.

You are interested in the event that out of three coin tosses, at least 2 of them are Heads, or equivalently, at most one of them is tails. So you are interested in finding the likelihood of zero tails, or one tails.

The probability of zero tails would be the case where you only received heads. Since each coin toss is independent, you can multiply these three tosses together: P(H)P(H)P(H)=p3 or in your case, (34)3=2764.

Now we must consider the case where one of your coin flips is a tails. Since you have three flips, you have three independent opportunities for tails. The likelihood of two heads and one tails is 3(p2)(1−p). The reason for the 3 coefficient is the fact that there are three possible events which include two heads and one tails: HHT,HTH,THH. In your case (where the coin is 3 times more likely to have heads): 3(34)2(14)=2764.

Adding those events together you get p3+3(p2)(1−p)=5464. Note that the 3 coefficient

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
FAST ANSWER PLEASE!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Oksana_A [137]

Answer:

15 - 2 + v

Step-by-step explanation:

i'm not to sure i asked my friend and she's very smart so i think thats ir

*sorry if its wrong*

8 0
3 years ago
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