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alexandr1967 [171]
3 years ago
7

Compensatory damages replace what was lost because of what the breaching party did and for this reason are often said to "make t

he person whole." true or false
Business
1 answer:
finlep [7]3 years ago
3 0
The statement above is TRUE. Compensatory damages are damages that compensate the non-breaching party for loss of bargain; it is usually given to cover direct costs and losses. Because they replace what was lost, they are often said to make the person whole.
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A privately owned summer camp for youngsters has the following data for a 12-week session: Charge per camper Fixed costs Variabl
shtirl [24]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Fixed costs= $192,000

Unitary variable cost= $320 per week

Selling price per unit= $480 per week

<u>To calculate the total cost, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Total cost= fixed costs + unitary variable cost*number of units

Total cost= 192,000 + 320*number of weeks

<u>Now, the total revenue:</u>

Total revenue= selling price per week*Number of weeks

Total revenue= 480*x

<u>Finally, the break-even point in units:</u>

Break-even point in units= fixed costs/ contribution margin per unit

Break-even point in units= 192,000 / (480 - 320)

Break-even point in units= 1,200 campers

3 0
3 years ago
The following transactions occurred during a recent year:
Natasha_Volkova [10]

The Company's preliminary Net Income can be determined as $575.

Preliminary net income = Total Revenue - Total Expenses

= $575 ($4,230 - $3,655)

Revenue:

d. Sales Revenue      $680

f. Service Revenue $2,870

i. Service Revenue    $680

Total Revenue      $4,230

Expenses:

a. Wages Expense       $1,700

e. Utilities Expense     $1,360

h. Travel Expense           $115

k. Advertising Expense $480

Total Expenses         $3,655

Thus, the company generated a preliminary net income of $575 for the period.

Learn more about determining net income at brainly.com/question/19850768

6 0
2 years ago
Parker Corporation has a job-order costing system and uses a predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply ma
AnnyKZ [126]

Answer:

Unitary cost= $62.5

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-hours to apply manufacturing overhead to jobs. At the beginning of the year, manufacturing overhead and direct labor-hours for the year were estimated at $50,000 and 20,000 hours.

Materials costs on the job totaled $4,000 and labor costs totaled $1,500 at $5 per hour.

First, we need to determine the allocated MOH:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 50000/20000= $2.5 per direct labor hour

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base= 2.5* (1500/5)= $750

Total cost= 4000 + 1500 + 750= $6,250

Unitary cost= 6250/100= $62.5

3 0
3 years ago
Central banks are responsible for the collection and the replacement of currency from circulation.
Dmitriy789 [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": True.

Explanation:

Central banks are the financial institutions in charge of the monetary policy of their country on behalf of the central government. They regulate the money supply and the interest rates to maintain a country's economy the closest to its equilibrium level. In the United States, the central bank is the Federal Reserve (<em>Fed</em>). Central banks also collect and replace the currency in circulation.

4 0
3 years ago
A perfect hedge (full coverage) on translation exposure can usually be achieved when which of the following occurs? a. Using a f
attashe74 [19]

Answer:

e). None of the above, because a perfect hedge does not exist

A perfect hedge is nearly impossible

Explanation:

A perfect hedge is a position undertaken by an investor that would eliminate the risk of an existing position, or a position that eliminates all market risk from a portfolio. In order to be a perfect hedge, a position would need to have a 100% inverse correlation to the initial position.

At the time of taking an opposite position in Derivatives Market, Perfect Hedge would mean covering the risk involved in the Cash Market Position completely, i.e. 100%. 2. Imperfect Hedge: When the position in the cash market is not completely hedged or not hedged to 100%, then such a hedge is called Imperfect Hedge.

6 0
3 years ago
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