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3 years ago

A temporary 0% APR is a good way to attract new credit card customers. This type of APR is known as:

Business

1 answer:

beks73 [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

d) Introductory rate

Explanation:

APR, or annual percentage rate, is the interest rate applied when using a credit card. A credit card company may introduce offers to boost the uptake of credit cards.

One way to increase uptake is through the 0% APR introductory offer. A temporal 0% APR means no interest will be charged for the use of the credit card for a time as determined by the credit card company. To take advantage of this offer, a customer must pay the minimum payments due on the statement.

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On October 1, 2017, Vaughn, Inc., leased a machine from Fell Leasing Company for five years. The lease requires five annual paym

Alisiya [41]

Answer:

Explanation:

1.Amount to be paid Annually to fell leasing Company = $10,000.

Incremental rate of borrowing = 11%

Lease Period = 5 yrs.

2. Value of lease equipment as on 1st October 2017 i.e., date of lease.

= 10,000 * (PVOA) = (11* for 5 years)

=10,000 * 3.6959 (using -PVAF table)

= $ 36,959

Factors are used according to the table of PVAF

3.Lease liability as on 31-12-2017

= 10,000 * PVAD (11 * 4 years) [since 4 years in these)

= 10,000 * 3.44371

= $ 34,437.10

Lease liability as on 31st Dec 2018

= 10,000 * PVAD (11% 3 years) (still 3 yrs left as on 31-12 -2018)

= 10,000 * 2.71252 = $ 27,125.20

7 0

3 years ago

Chang, Inc.'s balance sheet shows a stockholders' equity-book value (total common equity) of $750 comma 500. The firm's ear

Artist 52 [7]

Answer:

The price/book ratio is 2.45

This price/book ratio indicates that the Chang, Inc company has 2.45 higher market value of the stock than the book value of the equity

Explanation:

For computing the price/book ratio, we have to apply the formula which is shown below:

= Market price of equity ÷ book value of equity

where,

the market value of equity = firm's earnings per share × price/earnings ratio × number of outstanding common stock shares

= $3.00 × 12.25 × 50,000 shares

= $1,837,500

And, the book value of equity is $750,500

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the answer would be equal to

= $1,837,500 ÷ $750,500

= 2.45

This price/book ratio indicates that the Chang, Inc company has 2.45 higher market value of the stock than the book value of the equity

4 0

3 years ago

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning the Other Dependent Credit

omeli [17]

Answer:

The incorrect statement is letter "B": Residents of Canada meet the definition as a qualifying person.

Explanation:

Credit for Other Dependent is a tax credit taxpayers can claim for every qualifying dependent that is not considered as a Child Tax Credit (17 years or older and elderly parents). The taxpayer can get up to $500 nonrefundable credit for each of those qualifying dependents. Residents of Canada and Mexico do not meet the definition of qualifying dependent.

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

On January 1, 2018, Surreal Manufacturing issued 600 bonds, each with a face value of $1,000, a stated interest rate of 3 percen

Hoochie [10]

Answer:

Period Bonds Interest Cash Increase in Bonds payable

Payable Expenses Paid Bonds payable at the end

2018 583352 23334.08 18000 5334.08 588686.1

2019 588686.1 23547.44 18000 5547.44 594233.5

2020 594233.5 23766.48 18000 5766.48 600000

Journal entries

Jan 01 2018

Cash account Dr $583352

Discount on Bonds Payable Dr $16648

Bonds payable Cr $600000

Dec 31 2018

Interest expense Dr $23334.08

Cash account Cr $18000

Discount on bonds Payable Cr $5334.08

Dec 31 2019

Interest expense Dr $23547.44

Cash account Cr $18000

Discount on bonds Payable Cr $5547.44

Dec 31 2020

Interest expense Dr 23766.48

Cash account Cr $18000

Discount on bonds Payable Cr $5766.48

Dec 31 2020

Bonds Payable Dr $600000

Cash account Cr $600000

01.01.2020 (Redemption at 101)

Bonds Payable Dr $600000

Loss on redemption of bonds Dr $11766.48

Cash account (600000*101%) Cr $606000

Discount on bonds payable Cr $5766.48

8 0

3 years ago

Dobles Corporation has provided the following data from its activity-based costing system: The Assembly Cost Pool has a total co

Harrizon [31]

Answer:

$95.34 per unit

Explanation:

activity cost pool total cost(a) total activity(b) activity rate

assembly $228060 180000 hours $12.67

processing oders $34068 1200 orders $28.39

inspection $125560 1720 hours $73.00

Cost per activity is obtained by dividing total cost for each activity pool with its respective total activity. Cost per activity is helpful to identify the total cost allocated to each activity.

particulars expected activity per activity rate total cost

assembly 460 hours $12.67 $5828.20

processing orders 80 orders $28.39 $2271.20

inspection 10 hours $73.00 $730.00

manufacturing overhead $8829.40

Manufacturing overhead is the other costs that are neither direct material cost and nor direct labor cost. Here we add the total cost incurred in each cost pool to arrive at manufacturing overhead of $8,829.40. The manufacturing overhead incurred is allocated to each cost pool as per the activity and per activity rate.

manufacturing overhead per unit = manufacturing overhead/total units produced

= $8829.40/420

= $21.02

product cost per unit = direct material per unit + direct labor per unit + manufacturing overhead cost per unit

= $48.96 + $25.36 + $21.02

= $95.34

Therefore, the unit product cost of product D28K is closest to $95.34

8 0

3 years ago