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ki77a [65]
3 years ago
5

Why were peasants basically slaves ​

History
1 answer:
sveta [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

<em>They are basically slaves because They are at the bottom of everything,since they are poor. They have to work all day just to earn some money for a living, They also have no rights to complain to their bosses because they need the Change just to feed families. They barely have any food. Also they are Mostly seen wearing broken sandals, ETC. Even in Egypt they are at the bottom of the Pyramid. Last but not least they are always paying debts and taxes off.</em>

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Why did Greek colonies spread throughout the Mediterranean region?
salantis [7]

Greeks were sailors and explore because of the overpopulation in Greek so they are set in the nearby area and spread throughout the Mediterranean region.

<u>Explanation:</u>

The Greeks were the active seafarers as they were to make trading with the people. They made the trade with the near area which is the Mediterranean region.

Because of good trading routes the Mediterranean also travels to Greece. The conquest of Alexander leads to the spread of Greek culture. Even thee Greece was gone its culture spread throughout the world.

3 0
3 years ago
Which type of diffusion occurs when an idea spreads throughout the population without the actual physical movement of people?
Verdich [7]

Answer:

C. Contagious diffusion

Explanation:

In human geography , diffusions refers to the spread of cultural elements from one society to another.

Contagious diffusion occurs when an idea or knowledge is taught by one members of another society. When that member come back to their home origin, that person will spread the idea/knowledge to another person. After that, That other person will tell another person and chain will continue. Eventually, the idea will be spread in the new society like a contagious disease.

This is how contagious diffusions manage to spread ideas without actual movement of the people who originally  owned the ideas

8 0
3 years ago
What was society, economic, and political life like in Europe in the middle ages
nordsb [41]
The middle ages in Europe were pretty terrible. Politically, kings ruled directly over groups of people, or over whole countries. The kings answered to the Pope generally. Economically, the kings and their nobles owned most of the profits of hard labor, while the townspeople after were treated to low wages.  A sizable gap between classes was seen economically, and there was little room for changes in a persons economic class. Socially, the structure went like this: beggars and thieves, serfs (or non land owning peasants), knights, nobles and bishops, kings, the Pope. 
8 0
3 years ago
What does Churchill mean when he described russia as being “... a riddle, wrapped in a mystery, inside an enigma”?
Nutka1998 [239]

This is how Churchill expressed inability to predict what Soviet Union will at the start of World War 2. The timeline below show why he could be puzzled:

a) August 23,  1939 - Soviet Union and Germany sign non-aggression pact

b) September 1, 1939 - Germany invades Poland (then ally of Britain and France).

c) September 3, 1939 - Britain declares war on Germany as a consequence of German's invasion of Poland.

d) September 17, 1939 - Soviet Union invades eastern Poland. Poland is defeated and partitioned between Germany and Soviet Union.

Therefore from Churchill standpoint: Soviet Union is allied with Germany, whom are at war with Britain. Go figure what Stalin is going to do?

6 0
3 years ago
How does Jean Bodin define absolute rule?
sammy [17]

The writings of Jean Bodin provides us with an early theorisation of the idea of sovereignty even though the examples he uses are quite extensive. Essential to Bodin's notion of sovereignty is that the power the sovereign holds must be absolute and permanent. If a ruler holds absolute power for the duration of his life he can be said to be sovereign. In contrast, an elected official or some other person that holds limited powers can not be described to be sovereign. Although at times Bodin suggests that the people are sovereign, his definition of sovereignty as absolute, unlimited and enduring power points purposively towards a positive association of sovereignty and a singular monarchical, or even tyrannical, power.

Another qualification that Bodin introduces into the definition of sovereignty as absolute and perpetual is one that will become increasingly important in subsequent theorisations, culminating in the work of Carl Schmitt. For Bodin, a sovereign prince is one who is exempt from obedience to the laws of his predecessors and more importantly, those issued by himself. Sovereignty rests in being above, beyond or excepted from the law. Although it occupies a subordinate place in Bodin's theorisation, it could be said that this exception from being subject to the law is the quintessential condition of sovereignty in so far as it is understood politically.

Although for Bodin sovereignty is characterised by absolute and perpetual power he goes on to make a series of important qualifications to this concept. These come from two principle concerns. The first is real politics - Bodin seems to be aware that absolute power could licence behaviour injurious to sovereign authority. Hence for example a sovereign cannot and should not confiscate property nor break contractual agreements made with other sovereigns, estates nor private persons. The second reason is Bodin's underlying theological notion of divine authority and natural law. A sovereign may put aside civil law, but he must not question natural law (in which it appears right of property is sanctioned). Saying this, it is ultimately from this divine authority that the earthly right of sovereign power is legitimated. The prince literary does god's bidding, and yet by virtue of this can do wrong. Hopefully this helps out some :)

5 0
3 years ago
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