A survey of 1,200 men and women asked, "Do you earn over $75,000 per year?" The table below shows the responses for males and fe
1 answer:
<span>Two events are said to be independent of each other, when the probability that one event occurs in no way affects the probability of the other event occurring. For example, the outcome of rolling a die has no way of affecting the outcome of flipping a coin. Thus we say that both events are indipendent events.
In conditional probability, i</span><span>n the case where events A and B are independent, the conditional probability of event B given event A, P(B|A) is simply the probability of event B, that is P(B).
Recall that the </span>conditional probability of event, say B given event, say A, P(B|A) is given by
Given the table
<span> Male Female Total
Income over $75,000 585 485 1,070
Income below $75,000 65 65 130
Total 650 550 1,200
</span><span>P(being female | the person earns over $75,000) = P(Females that earns over $75,000) divided by P(people that earns over $75,000).
</span><span>P(Females that earns over $75,000) =
</span>P(people that earns over $75,000) = <span>
Thus, </span>P(being female | the person earns over $75,000) = <span>
P(being female) =
Therefore, since </span>P(being female | the person earns over $75,000) is not equal to <span>P(being female), then </span><span>"being female" and "earning over $75,000" are NOT independent events.
</span>Therefore, the correct answer is
<span>No, P(being female | the person earns over $75,000) ≠ P(being female)</span>
In conditional probability, i</span><span>n the case where events A and B are independent, the conditional probability of event B given event A, P(B|A) is simply the probability of event B, that is P(B).
Recall that the </span>conditional probability of event, say B given event, say A, P(B|A) is given by
Given the table
<span> Male Female Total
Income over $75,000 585 485 1,070
Income below $75,000 65 65 130
Total 650 550 1,200
</span><span>P(being female | the person earns over $75,000) = P(Females that earns over $75,000) divided by P(people that earns over $75,000).
</span><span>P(Females that earns over $75,000) =
</span>P(people that earns over $75,000) = <span>
Thus, </span>P(being female | the person earns over $75,000) = <span>
P(being female) =
Therefore, since </span>P(being female | the person earns over $75,000) is not equal to <span>P(being female), then </span><span>"being female" and "earning over $75,000" are NOT independent events.
</span>Therefore, the correct answer is
<span>No, P(being female | the person earns over $75,000) ≠ P(being female)</span>
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Step-by-step explanation:
everything can be found in the picture
Answer:
A. the vertical intercept (often called the y-intercept)
B. the slope of the line
C. V(t) = 100t +2000
D. V(10) = 3000, the value in year 10
E. see attached
Step-by-step explanation:
<h3>a. </h3>You are told that year 0 is the year that you made the investment. Then the value in year 0 represents <em>the value of the investment in the year you made the investment</em>. (It is sometimes called the "initial value.")
When the function is graphed, the value in year 0 will be the value on the graph at t=0. If t=0 is the vertical axis (as it usually is), then 2000 is the vertical intercept--the point where the line meets the vertical axis.
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<h3>b.</h3>To find the difference between values in consecutive years, subtract one from the other:
2100 -2000 = 100 . . . . the change in value in consecutive years
On the graph, for each increment of 1 in the value of t, the value of the investment will increase by this amount. That means the slope of the graph (rise/run) is 100/1 = 100. The difference in value in consecutive years is the slope of the graph.
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<h3>c.</h3>The equation of the line is ...
V(t) = (slope) × t + (vertical intercept)
V(t) = 100t +2000
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<h3>d.</h3>V(10) = 100×10 +2000 = 1000 +2000
V(10) = 3000 . . . . . the value of the investment in year 10
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<h3>e.</h3>see attached
