Answer and Explanation:
The computation of the MIRR is shown below:
But before that terminal cash flow required to calculate
<u>
Year Cash Flows FV Factor Formula Terminal Value
</u>
<u> (Cash Flow × FV Factor) </u>
0 ($1,000)
1 $450 1.21 (1 +10%)^(2) $545
2 $450 1.1 (1 + 10%)^(1) $495
3 $450 1 1 $450
Terminal Cash Flow $1,490
now the MIRR is
![MIRR = \sqrt[n]{\frac{terminal\ cash\ flow}{initial\ investment} } - 1\\\\= \sqrt[3]{\frac{\$1,490}{\$1,000} } - 1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=MIRR%20%3D%20%5Csqrt%5Bn%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7Bterminal%5C%20cash%5C%20flow%7D%7Binitial%5C%20investment%7D%20%7D%20-%201%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D%20%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7B%5Cfrac%7B%5C%241%2C490%7D%7B%5C%241%2C000%7D%20%7D%20-%201)
= 14.22%
As it can be seen that the MIRR is more than the WACC so the project should be accepted.
Answer:
The correct option is (A) price; reinvestment
Explanation:
The bond immunizatio refers to a strategy i.e. related to the investment that used for lowering the rate of interest and the risk of the bond via adjusting the time period of the portfolio for matching out with the investor time period of the investment.
In the case when there is a fall in the rate of interest so the immunzation would defines the appreciation of the price that compensatin the risk reinvestment
Hence, the correct option is (A) price; reinvestment
Answer:
Cash equivalents are the total value of cash on hand that includes items that are similar to cash; cash and cash equivalents must be current assets.
Explanation:
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Answer:
The retained earnings should Quartz report at December 31, 2018 is $570,000
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the retained earnings equation which is shown below:
Ending retained earnings balance = Beginning retained earning balance + net income - dividend paid
= $390,000 + $220,000 - $40,000
= $570,000
The net income should be added while dividend should be deducted for finding out the ending retained earnings balance
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