Answer:
![\frac{1}{8}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B8%7D)
Explanation:
From the question: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive disease.
Now for an X-linked recessive disorder to be affected by a male individual; it only requires the presence of only one copy of the recessive allele of the disease to be present BUT in a female individual. both copies of the recessive allele must be present.
Let the X-linked recessive disease(i.e Duchenne muscular dystrophy) be = (ⁿ)
However, we are told that the couples are normal and are unaffected. Therefore;
the male partner (XY) will be: ![X^NY](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=X%5ENY)
the female partner (XY) will be: ![X^NX^N](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=X%5ENX%5EN)
Similarly, the question proceeds by telling us that: the woman's brother has the disease.
Definitely, it's possible that this unaffected woman is a carrier of the disease.
So, if she is a carrier; we have her traits to be: ![X^NX^n](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=X%5ENX%5En)
NOW, if a cross exist between these couples; we have
× ![X^NX^n](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=X%5ENX%5En)
![Y](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=Y)
![X^NY](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=X%5ENY)
![X^nY](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=X%5EnY)
So, we have offspring as follows:
= normal unaffected female
= normal unaffected male
= female carrier for the Duchenne muscular dystrophy disease
= affected male with the Duchenne muscular dystrophy disease
So, the probability of the child to be affected with the disease = ![\frac{1}{4}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%7D)
Also, the probability that the first child will be a male or a female = ![\frac{1}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D)
∴
the probability that the couple’s first child will be affected = ![\frac{1}{4}*\frac{1}{2}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B4%7D%2A%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D)
=