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Serggg [28]
3 years ago
12

How does the Muslim artistic culture have an effect on the rest of the world?

History
1 answer:
lbvjy [14]3 years ago
8 0
Today, the term Islamic art describes all of the arts that were produced in the lands where Islam was the dominant religion or the religion of those who ruled. Unlike the terms Christian art, Jewish art, and Buddhist art—which refer only to religious art of these faiths—the term Islamic art is not used merely to describe religious art or architecture but applies to all art forms produced in the Islamic world.

Thus, the term Islamic art refers not only to works created by Muslim artists, artisans, and architects or for Muslim patrons. It encompasses works created by Muslim artists for patrons of any faith, including—Christians, Jews, or Hindus—and the works created by Jews, Christians, and others, living in Islamic lands, for patrons, Muslim and otherwise.

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Independence movement and consequences in India
Tcecarenko [31]

Answer:

Explanation:

India was a superpower in that period with a world economy share of  24.4% in 1700 to 4.2% in 1950. Britain had killed over 4 million Indian during the begal famine and left India in a awful condition. East India trade company the company made India one of the wealthiest countries in the world ,. Britain seized it and looted the silicon and golden trade routes.  Brought trade and influence into the country basically owning the global textile trade. Another was raw materials like jute and cotton with their rich agriculture They had very good raw goods such a Dimond and jewels and coffee and spices. Drawing on nearly two centuries of detailed data on tax and trade, Patnaik calculated that Britain drained a total of nearly $45 trillion from India during the period 1765 to 1938. It's a staggering sum. It is estimated that over 15 million people died. India had fallen below poverty and had alot of conflicts due to that aswell which led to the partition of  India - Pakistan - Bangladesh and a still on going war with Muslims vs Hindus

8 0
4 years ago
Which of the following best explains why the Stamp Act of 1765 was significant?
leonid [27]
The answer you're probably looking for is: The Stamp Act of 1765 was significant in the sense that it was the first direct tax imposed on American colonists (So, Option A would most likely be the answer that you're looking for to this question, that you have asked 

Good\\Luck\\ on\\ your \\ assignment!
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following resulted from King Phillip's war
frosja888 [35]
Need a picture or list since it says which of the following
3 0
3 years ago
6.To acquire a probationary license you must completed six months of
Aliun [14]

Answer:

I think it's True

Explanation:

Hopefully this helps :)

3 0
2 years ago
Which statement from Martin Luther's 95 Theses do you feel had the greatest impact on the Protestant Reformation? Explain your r
poizon [28]

Answer:

Fifty years ago my friends and I had a party where we read and toasted each of the 95 theses so at one point I certainly read ’em all, though granted the effect of all those shots, I don’t recall the higher numbered ones very well. In any case, don’t think the theses, which are focused on indulgences, are a very clear statement of Luther’s theology. After all, in 1517, Luther didn’t realize he was instigating the Reformation; and the full statement of salvation by faith alone and the rest came later. What made the Theses matter wasn’t doctrinal. One of the major factors in the Reformation was resentment of the financial burden the Roman church put on the German people—the indulgences were sold to finance the building of Saint Peter’s cathedral. Whatever purely religious motives the German princes had in supporting Luther’s rebellion, they definitely liked the idea of not shipping money off to Rome. The prospect of secularizing the monasteries was mighty welcome as well. No princely support, no Reformation.

or

I’m definitely going for thesis 62 — “The true treasure of the church, is the most holy gospel of the glory and grace of God”

Rome and the Reformers both taught that a man is justified by God’s work of grace, but, it is all important to see the real contrast between the Roman and the Reformation faiths. ROME taught — justification by God’s work of grace in man emphasizing the work of God in us and our co-operation with that work.

The REFORMATION — taught that man is Justified by God’s work of grace in Christ, emphasizing what God does for us in Christ, without our co-operation.

Explanation:

that^^

6 0
4 years ago
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