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3 years ago

Please help me I don't understand

Mathematics

2 answers:

PIT_PIT [208]3 years ago

7 0

The answer is B. since it is division

Leviafan [203]3 years ago

7 0

You know how / is also ÷? How I think of it is that the top is the left, and the bottom is the right, and the line in between is just a /. That means that r over 9 is r/9, making it B.

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Differentiate<br> y=(6x)/(1-cot(x))

My name is Ann [436]

$\bf y=\cfrac{6x}{1-cot(x)}\implies \cfrac{dy}{dx}=\stackrel{quot ient~ru le}{\cfrac{6[1-cot(x)]~-~6x[-csc^2(x)]}{[1-cot(x)]^2}}
\\\\\\
\cfrac{dy}{dx}=\cfrac{6-6cot(x)~+~6xcsc^2(x)}{[1-cot(x)]^2}$

8 0

4 years ago

The perimeter of the original figure is 68 feet and the perimeter of the scale drawing is 17 feet. What is the scale factor of t

xxMikexx [17]

Its 1/4 .. i answered this the other day.

8 0

3 years ago

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3.In 1995, the Educational Testing Service in Princeton, New Jersey (which administers SAT exam) re-centered the scores so that

Travka [436]

Answer:

38.22% probability that of 10 randomly selected students, lessthan four will be between 900 and 1,100

Step-by-step explanation:

For each student, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they score between 900 and 1,100, or they score outside this range. The probability of a student scoring between 900 and 1,100 is independent from other students. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

About 40 percent of these students’ scores were between 900 and 1,100.

This means that $p = 0.4$ .

a)Based on this estimate, what is the probability that of 10 randomly selected students, lessthan four will be between 900 and 1,100?

This is $P(X < 4)$ when $n = 10$ . So

$P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.4)^{0}.(0.6)^{10} = 0.0060$

$P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.4)^{1}.(0.6)^{9} = 0.0403$

$P(X = 2) = C_{10,2}.(0.4)^{2}.(0.6)^{8} = 0.1209$

$P(X = 3) = C_{10,3}.(0.4)^{3}.(0.6)^{7} = 0.2150$

$P(X < 4) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.0060 + 0.0403 + 0.1209 + 0.2150 = 0.3822$

38.22% probability that of 10 randomly selected students, lessthan four will be between 900 and 1,100

8 0

4 years ago

Eden bought a new phone. The phone's retail price is $199. In addition, she paid sales tax of 8% of the retail price. A few days

natka813 [3]

Answer:

164.92

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

3 years ago

Whar is the LCM of 1/6 and 3/8

aalyn [17]

<h3>Answer: 24</h3>

==========================================

There are 3 methods to find the lowest common multiple (LCM)

---------------------------

Method 1

List out the multiples of 6 and 8

multiples of 6 = {6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, ...}

multiples of 8 = {8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, ...}

We see that 24 is the smallest number in both sets at the same time. So this is the LCM.

---------------------------

Method 2

Write the prime factorization of 6 and 8

prime factorization of 6 = 2*3

prime factorization of 8 = 2*2*2

The unique prime factors here are 2 and 3. We have 2 show up at most three times meaning that 2*2*2 = 8 is a factor of the LCM. The number 3 is also a factor meaning that 8*3 = 24 is the LCM.

---------------------------

Method 3

Multiply the denominators 6 and 8 to get 6*8 = 48

48 is a common multiple, but its not the smallest

we can divide 48 over the GCF 2 to get 48/2 = 24, which is the actual LCM.

So when you have 2 different denominators, you can multiply their values and then divide by the GCF to get the LCM.

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers