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Nonamiya [84]
4 years ago
14

Keith is driving to Chicago. Suppose that the distance to his destination (in miles) is a linear function of his total driving t

ime (in minutes). Keith has miles to his destination after minutes of driving, and he has miles to his destination after minutes of driving. How many miles will he have to his destination after minutes of driving?

Mathematics
1 answer:
DanielleElmas [232]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I think you missed the information for the distance he has traveld and the time. Here is my suggestion for that information and hope it will fit your question well

<em>Keith is driving to Milwaukee .suppose that the distance to his destination (in miles) is a linear function of his total driving time in (minutes) . Felipe has 67 miles to his destination after 49 minutes of driving . He has 47.5 miles to his destination after 75 minutes of driving . How many miles will he have after 85 minutes of driving ? </em>

Keith has 67 miles to his destination after 49 minutes of driving .

He has 47.5 miles to his destination after 75 minutes of driving .

How many miles will he have after 85 minutes of driving ?

Use the slope formula: m = \frac{y2 - y1 }{x2 - x1} where :

x1=49; y1=67

x2=75; y2=47.5

Use the point/slope y - y1 = m(x - x1)

y - 67 = -.75(x - 49)

y - 67 = -.75x + 36.75

y = -.75x + 36.75 + 67

y = -.75x + 103.75

Looks like this , see my attachment.

"How many miles will he have after 85 minutes of driving ?"

x = 85

y = -.75(85) + 103.75

y = -63.75 + 103.75

y = 40 mi from home after 85 min

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AnnZ [28]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Make and equation and solve for x.

(2x+10)^2 = 4(x-5)^2 Now the easiest thing to do is use the formula for squared binomial, (a+b)^2 = a^2 + 2ab + b^2.

4x^2 + 40x + 100 = 4(x^2 - 10x + 25)

4x^2 + 40x + 100 = 4x^2 - 40x + 100

From hear you can cancel out similar terms

40x + 100 = - 40x + 100

40x = -40x

add 40x to both sides

80x = 0

x = 0

The only solution to this is 0.

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3 years ago
Which expression is a perfect cube?<br> O 12x12,18<br> 12x27/125<br> 64x15,18<br> 64x27,125
andrey2020 [161]
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According to an April 2019 report by the Cruise Lines International Association, in 2018 28.5 million people went on cruises, an
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Answer:

Total people international traveler on cruises = 1,425 million people

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Total people international traveler on cruises = 28.5 million

Percentage of international traveler = 2%

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Total people international traveler on cruises

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Read 2 more answers
On a map, the length of a river is 4.75 in. The actual length of the river is 247 miles. What is the scale of the map?
chubhunter [2.5K]
Since we know the actual river length is 247 miles and that it transfers to 4.75 inches on the map we can divide to find our answer. Dividing will show us how many miles is equivalent to 1 inch on the map.

247/4.75 = 52

This means every 52 miles will appear on the map as 1 inch.

You can also check this answer (you do not have to check) by making an equation that shows the two values and finding how much 1 mile is in inches on the map.

247 (miles) = 4.75 (inches)

Now, we can divide 247 by 247 to give us 1 mile, and what you do to one side of the equation you must do to the other.

247/247 = 4.75/247 (I suggest using a calculator for this part)
              ↓
1 mile = 0.01923076923 inches on the map

To continue checking the answer multiply both sides by 52. The inches sides will come out as 1 proving that 52 miles is equivalent to 1 inch on the map.

1(mile)*52 = 0.01923076923(inches)*52
               ↓
52 miles = 1 inch

Your answer is now proven to be 52 miles is 1 inch on the scale. I suppose you could also write it as 1 mile is equal to 0.01923076923 inches for the scale, but it is unnecessarily complicated and I'm sure your teacher expects the other and much simpler answer.

Answer: The scale converts 52 miles to 1 inch on the map.

3 0
4 years ago
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