Answer:
C) 0.5 USD
Explanation:
Swap is an arrangement in which two parties exchange their interest rates for mutual benefit. One party may receive fixed rate and other will receive floating rate based on LIBOR. In the given scenario the swap agreement was originated when the LIBIOR was 3%. The fixed rate was set to be at 4% so the net gain at the time of inception was 1%. When LIBOR increased after six month the net gain declined to only 0.5%.
<em><u>The equation shows the relationship between her weekly salary (w), hours per week (h), and rate per hour (r) is:</u></em>
<em><u>Solution:</u></em>
Given that,
Alice earned $12 per hour
1 hour = $ 12
<em><u>Find the number of hours in 1 week</u></em>
1 day = 24 hours
1 week = 7 days
Therefore,
1 week = 7 x 24 = 168 hours
Let "h" be the hours per week
let "r" be the rate per hour
Let "w" be the rate per hour
From given,
r = $ 12
h = 168 hours
weekly salary = hours per week x rate per hour
Thus, she earns $ 2016 for 1 week
Answer: None of the above
Explanation:
All of the above are correct.
For option A, Economists who advocate discretionary monetary policy do indeed believe that the monetary authority using this policy is more flexible to shape the best monetary policy to the existing circumstances.
Option B is also correct because Crowding out occurs when the government increases investment by borrowing which leaves less money for the private sector to borrow so they spend less. The government spent money here yet the private sector did not spend less so it is Zero Crowing out.
Option C by option B's explanation holds true because the entire amount the Government increased by was denied the private sector.
Option D is also true as not all Economists prefer rule-based monetary policy to discretionary monetary policy.
They are all true.
Seen as it may be 1 of there first jobs you can pay them less because they don't have as much experience as someone has has worked in the job for years
Answer:
The correct answer is B.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $2,250
n= 4
i= 5%
Additional investment= $3,000
<u>First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {2,250*[(1.05^4) - 1]} / 0.05
FV= 9,697.78 + 3,000
FV= $12,697.78
<u>Now, the present value:</u>
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 12,697.78/(1.05^4)
PV= $10,446.5
