The answer is zero
Hopes this helps :)
Answer:
about -1
Step-by-step explanation:
0.9999999999 minus 2
Answer:
a) 
And we can use the probability mass function and we got:
And adding we got:

b)
c) ![P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E3%29%20%3D%201-P%28X%20%5Cleq%203%29%20%3D%201-%20%5BP%28X%3D0%29%2BP%28X%3D1%29%2BP%28X%3D2%29%2BP%28X%3D3%29%5D%20)


And replacing we got:
![P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20P%28X%3E3%29%20%3D%201-%5B0.0115%2B0.0576%2B0.1369%2B0.2054%5D%3D%201-0.4114%3D%200.5886)
d) 
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
Solution to the problem
Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
Part a
We want this probability:

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:
And adding we got:

Part b
We want this probability:

And using the probability mass function we got:
Part c
We want this probability:

We can use the complement rule and we got:
![P(X>3) = 1-P(X \leq 3) = 1- [P(X=0)+P(X=1)+P(X=2)+P(X=3)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%3E3%29%20%3D%201-P%28X%20%5Cleq%203%29%20%3D%201-%20%5BP%28X%3D0%29%2BP%28X%3D1%29%2BP%28X%3D2%29%2BP%28X%3D3%29%5D%20)


And replacing we got:
![P(X>3) = 1-[0.0115+0.0576+0.1369+0.2054]= 1-0.4114= 0.5886](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20P%28X%3E3%29%20%3D%201-%5B0.0115%2B0.0576%2B0.1369%2B0.2054%5D%3D%201-0.4114%3D%200.5886)
Part d
The expected value is given by:

And replacing we got:

Answer: do the a dozen for $13.50
Step-by-step explanation: It will help save money
3x + 6 = 48 (alternate angles are equal)
- 6
3x. = 42
÷3
x = 14 degrees
180-48 - 2y + 5y-9 =180
123 + 3y = 180
-123
3y = 57
÷3
y = 19 degrees
Explanation:
To find the last angle on the top straight line, do:
180 - (the 2 given angles).
So, 180 - (3x + 16, which is 48 due to alternate angles being equal). Then, minus the 2y.
(180 - 48 - 2y) & simplify => 132 - 2y
This gives you the equation for the missing angle on our top straight line.
Thus, co-interior angles add to 180. So, we add the new equation (132 - 2y) to 5y - 9.
Simplify
=> 123 + 3y (because - 2+5 =3)
and put it equal to 180. Solve for y
Hope this helps!