1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
raketka [301]
3 years ago
13

Why were the children of wealthy Romans educated in Greece?

History
1 answer:
Lapatulllka [165]3 years ago
8 0

Because they could afford it. The Roman education system was based on the Greek system, so why not learn it in Greece. The Romans education was based on the classical Greek tradition but infused with Roman politics, cosmology, and religious beliefs. The only children to receive a formal education were the children of the rich. The very rich families employed a private tutor to teach their children. Those that could not afford to do this used either slaves or sent their children to a private school.

You might be interested in
What was the kings privy council? What role did it play in the hiuse of Burgesses?
allochka39001 [22]

The kings privy council was his council of lords and higher up nobles that advised him based on what would be best for their share of land and France as a whole. The king would never like to turn against the nobles or a civil war could break out, these nobles clashed in the legislative house which eventually led to a civil war in both France and England.

3 0
3 years ago
How did the role of the supreme court change during john marshall's tenure as chief justice?
dezoksy [38]
The suprem court made new laws
6 0
3 years ago
World War I was also known by this name
MAVERICK [17]

Answer:

First World War

The Great War

The War To End All Wars

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which statement does NOT describe a result of the automobile industry's influence on life during the Roaring Twenties? A. Other
pishuonlain [190]
B. People in the United States took more vacations 

hope this helps
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What caused Britain to begin considering India’s desire for independence?
12345 [234]
The World War II bc after the world war II, the British did not enough financial strength to took care of the problems in india anymore, beside that there are a lot of violent revolution toward the colonist that happen after the war
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • !!!!!ASAP!!!!!!
    5·2 answers
  • How do the states work together to preserve the Union?
    7·1 answer
  • What was the name of the dynasty ruled by charlemagne?
    8·1 answer
  • - What are the 3 categories used to classify Amendments?
    14·1 answer
  • How did patterns of immigration in the U.S. change between the 1840s and the 1910s? What roles did newly arrived immigrants play
    6·1 answer
  • Match the ideology with its correct description
    8·1 answer
  • This map shows the Proclamation Line of 1763, which was created after the end of the French and Indian War. Why were
    8·2 answers
  • When Mary was arrested for shoplifting, she asked the judge to set bail so that she could be
    11·1 answer
  • من القائل وما المناسبة ؟ " هذا يا محمد أول ما أقاضيه عليه أن ترده " .
    13·1 answer
  • What inferences can be made about pioneers on the Oregon trail from this image
    6·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!