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Sergeu [11.5K]
4 years ago
12

If the government were to use eminent domain to seize personal property for a public park, would this be acceptable, according t

o the Fifth Amendment?
Yes, because the Fifth Amendment states that anyone can take property for any reason.
Yes, because the property is going to be used for a public good or service.
No, because eminent domain cannot apply here.
No, because the government did not get the owner’s permission to take the property.
History
1 answer:
I am Lyosha [343]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Yes, because the property is going to be use for a public good or service.

Explanation:

the fifth Amendment. states that the government can seize private property for public use. if the property is going to be used for public use and there is a compensation provided for the owner of the property. If the owner refuses to sale it for public use, then the government can use its power of eminent domain and condemn the property, to force the sale of it for public use.

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