Answer:
20
Step-by-step explanation:
By HL and CPCTC, GF = FI, so GI = 2FI = 2(10) = 20.
When you see the fraction 33/16, you realize that 33 divided by 16 is 2 remainder 1, so you add the 2 to the original 6, then put the remainder 1 on top of 16 ,which gives you 8 1/16
The answer is B) 0 miles. Because displacement is the shortest distance between starting point and ending point. Since, his starting point and ending point is the same, hence, his displacement is 0 miles.
The answer is n= -1.
Hope this helps
