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grandymaker [24]
3 years ago
6

On january 1, a company issued and sold a $460,000, 3%, 10-year bond payable, and received proceeds of $456,000. interest is pay

able each june 30 and december 31. the company uses the straight-line method to amortize the discount. the carrying value of the bonds immediately after the first interest payment is:
Business
1 answer:
Bad White [126]3 years ago
8 0

To find the carrying value of the bonds after the first interest payments, we need to do the calculations to find the interest ..

Calculation of Interest:-

Cash interest payment of $ 6,900 ( 1.5% x $ 460,000) at the end of each semiannual period during the bonds life of 10 years… ( 3% / 2 = 1.5%)

That is $ 6,900 is paid for every six months say from Jan 30th to June 30 and June 30 to Dec 31……

So, every year we will pay $ 13,800 ( $ 6,900 + $ 6,900 ) for 20 periods ( two payments are made for every year, so for 10 years , we need to make the interest payment for 20 periods…)

Now lets amortize a bond discount.. (Amortizing is nothing but paying back

Straight Line Method… This method allocates an equal portion of the total bond interest expense to each interest period .

We divide the total bond interest expense of $ 142,000 by 20

This gives the interest expense of $ 7,100 per period. ( $ 6,900 interest + $ 200 Discount)

Interest Computation

Amount repaid to bondholders

20 interest payments of $ 6,900 = $ 138,000

Par value at maturity =$ 460,000

_________

Total repaid to bondholders = $ 598,000

Less:- Amount borrowed from bondholders = $ 456,000

__________

Total bond interest expenses = $ 142,000

__________

The following table shows the decrease in Discount on bonds payable account and the increase in the bonds carrying value ( Straight line method)

This is the summarization of Discount bond Straight Line amortization..

Semiannual period –end Unammortized Discount Carrying Value

(0) 1 / 30 $ 4,000 $ 456,00

(1) 6 / 30 $ 3,800 $ 456,200

(4,000 -200) ( 456,00+200)

The carrying value of the bonds after the first interest payment is $ 456,200

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1. A new furnace for your small factory will cost $27,000 to install and will require ongoing maintenance expenditures of $1,500
Marina CMI [18]

Answer:

payback 3.29 years

NPV 87,158.55

Explanation:

PO 27,000

<u>Cash flow saving Y1 </u>

2400 x 3.5 = 8,400

expenditures (1,500)

net savings   6,900

<u>Cash flow saving Y2 </u>

The price will increase 0.5

6,900 + 2,400 x 0.5 = 8,100

<u>Cash flow saving Y3 to Y20</u>

The price will increase 0.5

8,100 + 2,400 x 0.5 = 9,300

We have an annuity of 18 years for 9,300 cash

And then we have a cash flow of 6,900

and another of 8,100

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C = 9,300

r = 8%

time = 18

9,300 \times \frac{1-(1+0.08)^{-18} }{0.08} = PV\\

PV =  87,158.55

Now this values are years into the future, so we need to bring them to present day.

\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV

year 1 principal 6,900

6,900/1.08 = 6,388.89

year 2 principal 8,100

\frac{8,100}{(1 + 0.08)^{2} } = PV

PV= 5,915.64

year 3 annuity 87,158.55

\frac{87,158.55}{(1 + 0.08)^{3} } = PV

PV= 69,189.27

cash flow - investment = net present value

69,189.27 + 5,915.64 + 6,388.89 - 27,000 = 54,493.8

The payback will be the time perdion when the project recovers it initial cost:

we first add the income from the irregular years and subtract from the investment

6,900 + 8,100 = 15,000

27,000 - 15,000 = 12,000

then we use the general formula investment/cash flow per year

12,000/9,300 = 1.29

the project need the first two years and then 1.29 years

2 + 1.29 = 3.29 years

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Answer:

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