Answer:
A. Money Market checking account
Explanation:
A money market account represents a savings account with some features of a checking account provided by a bank. Herein, a customer deposits money, and such funds are invested into money market instruments which are highly liquid, such as commercial papers, treasury bills, certificate of deposits, etc.
Such accounts provide debit card and checks and allow a certain number of withdrawals every month. The rate of interest offered under these accounts is usually higher than the ordinary savings account.
In the given case, the customer has $20,000 to invest and also requires immediate access to the funds to pay his bills. The best recommendation would be to deposit such funds to a money market checking account, which would provide him with access i.e liquidity, a higher rate of interest than on savings account and safety of investment.
It is noteworthy that all other options specified are not as liquid as money market checking account since, those alternatives either require considerable time in redeeming and selling or do not provide immediate access to funds.
Answer:
The After Tax Cost of Debt = 0.072 or 7.2%
Explanation:
The question is to determine the After Tax Cost of Debt for Rolling Stone.
This is carried out as follows
Step 1: When we decide to calculate the Yield to Maturity, it should be noted that Market Value = Par Value
Therefore,
Coupon Rate which is the same as the Yield to Maturity (YTM) = 12%
Step 2: Based on this derivative, therefore,
After Tax Cost of Debt = Yield TO Maturity Rate (1-Marginal Tax Rate)
= 12% (1-40%)
= 0.12 (1-0.4)
The After Tax Cost of Debt = 0.072 or 7.2%
Answer:
We see that Prog A will give an annual CF of 75%*$6000 = $4500
Prog B will give annual CF of 95%*$6000 = $5700
Disc Rate Kd = 20%
So PV of Annuity of $1 for 5 yrs with Kd = 20% is 2.9906
So NPV of Prog A = CF0+CF1+ ....+Cf5 = -12000+2.9906*4500 = $1,458
So NPV of Prog B= CF0+CF1+ ....+Cf5 = -20000+2.9906*5700 = $(2,954)
So Prog A is more effective as it gives a Positive NPV
Answer:
The annual rate of return of the invesment will be -14,97%
Explanation:
The initial investment is 45.000 and after 5 years the value of the investment is only 20.000. Here we can see a destruction of value (20.000 < 45.000). In finance, the time takes an essential part in calculation, so through the interest rate we calculated how bad was the investment in annual terms. The formula is as follows: Final investment value=(Initial investment*(1+interest rate)^(total years)) in our case would be: 20.000=(45.000*(1+interest rate)^(5)) From this formula we got -14,97%
Answer:
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