Answer:
0 ≤ t ≤ 5.
Step-by-step explanation:
In the function 
, 
is the independent variable. The domain of 
is the set of all values of that this function can accept.
In this case, is defined in a real-life context. Hence, consider the real-life constraints on the two variables. Both time and volume should be non-negative. In other words,
.
.
The first condition is an inequality about , which is indeed the independent variable.
However, the second condition is about , the dependent variable of this function. It has to be rewritten as a condition about .
![\begin{aligned} f(t) &\ge 0 &&\text{Assumption} \cr 80000 - 16000\, t& \ge 0 && \text{Definition of} ~ f \cr 80000 & \ge 16000\, t && \begin{aligned}&\text{Add $16000\, t$} \\[-0.5em] & \text{to both sides of the inequality}\end{aligned} \cr 5 &\ge t &&\begin{aligned}&\text{Divide both sides of} \\[-0.5em] & \text{the inequality by $16000$}\end{aligned} \cr t &\le 5 && \text{Flip the inequality}\end{aligned}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbegin%7Baligned%7D%20f%28t%29%20%26%5Cge%200%20%26%26%5Ctext%7BAssumption%7D%20%5Ccr%2080000%20-%2016000%5C%2C%20t%26%20%5Cge%200%20%26%26%20%5Ctext%7BDefinition%20of%7D%20~%20f%20%5Ccr%2080000%20%26%20%5Cge%2016000%5C%2C%20t%20%26%26%20%5Cbegin%7Baligned%7D%26%5Ctext%7BAdd%20%2416000%5C%2C%20t%24%7D%20%5C%5C%5B-0.5em%5D%20%26%20%5Ctext%7Bto%20both%20sides%20of%20the%20inequality%7D%5Cend%7Baligned%7D%20%5Ccr%205%20%26%5Cge%20t%20%26%26%5Cbegin%7Baligned%7D%26%5Ctext%7BDivide%20both%20sides%20of%7D%20%5C%5C%5B-0.5em%5D%20%26%20%5Ctext%7Bthe%20inequality%20by%20%2416000%24%7D%5Cend%7Baligned%7D%20%5Ccr%20t%20%26%5Cle%205%20%26%26%20%5Ctext%7BFlip%20the%20inequality%7D%5Cend%7Baligned%7D)
.
Hence, t ≤ 5.
Combine the two inequalities to obtain the domain:
0 ≤ t ≤ 5.
Answer:
It's 1/4
Step-by-step explanation:
It's closer to 0 than the other fractions
An <em>imaginary number</em>. The defining property of an imaginary number is that has the number i attached to it, where i² = -1.
A few examples of imaginary numbers: 3i, i, -7i, (√3)i, (1/2)i
<span>We have the yearly cost in dollars y at a video game arcade based on total game tokens purchased
. So we know that:
</span>
<span>
</span>
<span>
</span><span>
Then we can study this problem by using the graph in the figure below. We know that if there's no any purchase, the yearly cost for a
member will be $60 and for a
nonmember there will not be any cost. From this, we can affirm that the cost of membership is equal to $60.
On the other hand, both members and nonmembers will pay the same price on the total game tokens purchased, this is true because of the same slope that members and nonmembers have in the equations.</span>
Answer: The answer is A
Step-by-step explanation: I took the test and it was right!
I hope this helped!
