Answer:
$2.73
Explanation:
Contribution margin:
Red = Unit Contribution margin × Sales Mix
= $ 2.90 × 2,100
= $6,090
Black = Unit Contribution margin × Sales Mix
= $ 3.00 × 700
= $2,100
Total contribution margin = Red + Black
= $6,090 + $2,100
= $8,190
Total sales mix = 2,100 + 700
= 3,000
Weighted CM:
= Total Contribution Margin ÷ Sales Mix
= $8,190 ÷ 3,000
= $2.73
The total payroll amount is $50,000 per week.
Since there are only 5 work days per week (Monday to
Friday), therefore the employees wage per day is:
Employees wage per day = $50,000 / 5 = $10,000
For the payday on April 4, the wages expense covered for
this would be from April 1 to April 4 since the accounting period ended on
March 31. Therefore wages expense in the journal entry would be calculated
using 4 days.
Wages expense for April for the payday April 4 = Employees
wage per day * Number of days
Wages expense for April for the payday April 4 = $10,000 * 4
<span>Wages expense for
April for the payday April 4 = $40,000</span>
Answer:
$4 per share
Explanation:
The formula to compute the regular yearly dividends in the future is shown below:
= Free cash flow ÷ outstanding shares
= $40 million ÷ 10 million shares
= $4 per share
It shows a relationship between the free cash flow and the outstanding shares
All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
The Share Value Commitment to be settled in shares and under no conditions will BuyCo be required to settle the Share Value Commitment in cash. BuyCo has concluded that it is more likely than not that the number of shares required to settle the Share Value Commitment will be less than 2 million. The Transaction closed on December 31, 20X1, at which time BuyCo legally obtained control over the purchased assets and assumed liabilities of SellCo. The fair value of BuyCo common stock was $1.85 per share on October 31, 20X1, $1.95 per share on December 31, 20X1, and $1.90 pe
Answer:
A) 9458 units
B) She would prefer the one with the single lump payment of $35,000 because the present value of the other one would increase with an increase in the units sold.
Explanation:
A) To calculate the uniform annual sales volume based on a present worth analysis, we will make use of the formula for present value of annuity.
Thus;
P = PMT × (1 - ((1/(1 - rⁿ))/r
From the question, we are given;
P = $35,000
PMT = (1200 + 0.4x)
r = 7% = 0.07
n = 10
Thus, Plugging in the relevant values, we have;
(1200 + 0.4x)((1 - (1/(1 + 0.07)^10))/0.07 = 35000
This gives;
(1200 + 0.4x) × 7.0236 = 35000
(1200 + 0.4x) = 35000/7.0236
(1200 + 0.4x) = 4983.2
0.4x = 4983.2 - 1200
0.4x = 3783.2
x = 3783.2/0.4
x = 9458 units
B) She would prefer the one with the single lump payment of $35,000 because the present value of the other one would increase with an increase in the units sold.
