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Digiron [165]
3 years ago
5

Solve for the weighted average cost of capital. 11.28% = K1 = cost of equity capital for a leveraged firm 1/2 debt-to-total-mark

et-value ratio 8.0% = 1 = before-tax borrowing cost 40.0% -τ - marginal corporate income tax rateA. 8.67 percent B. 8.00 percent C. 7.60 percent D. 7.33 percent
Business
1 answer:
Elena-2011 [213]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

WACC = Ke(E/V)  + Kd(D/V)(1 - T)

WACC = 11.28(0.50) + 8.0(0.5)(1 - 0.40)

WACC = 5.64  +  2.40

WACC = 8.0%

The  correct answer is B

Explanation:

WACC equals cost of equity multiplied by proportion of equity in the capital structure plus after-tax cost of debt multiplied by proportion of debt in the capital structure. The proportion of equity and debt in the capital structure are 50% respectively. Ke refers to cost of equity, Kd denotes before tax cost of debt, T represents tax rate, E/V denotes proportion of equity in the capital structure and D/V represents proportion of debt in the capital structure.

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A 7-year municipal bond yields 4.8%. Your marginal tax rate (including state and federal taxes) is 39.00%. What interest rate on
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Answer:

The interest rate on corporate bond is 7.87 percent.

Explanation:

The yield on 7-year municipal bond = 4.8%

Given marginal tax rate = 39 percent  

Now calculate the interest rate on 7 year corporate bond that has equal risk.

Use the below formula. Here, yield from both type of bond is equated that is yield from corporate bond and yield from municipal bond because it is given that both gives same return after tax.

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Interest rate on corporate bond × (1- 0.39) = 4.8\text{Interest rate on corporate bond} = \frac{4.8}{0.61} = 7.87 \  percent

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3 years ago
What is the area of a triangle base 20ft and the hight of 14ft​
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The Area Of The Triangle Is

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4 0
3 years ago
You are thinking of investing in Wave Runnerz, Inc. You have only the following information on the firm at year-end 2013: net in
tatuchka [14]

Answer:

8.28%

Explanation:

Given that,

Net income = $10 million

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Total assets = $65 million ÷ 35 percent

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= $10,000,000 ÷ (Total assets - Debt)

= $10,000,000 ÷ ($185,714,286 - $65,000,000)

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The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. wha
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The answer is $48.

The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. $48 is the opportunity cost, assuming the seller sells internally

It is calculated as follows:

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                               =$48

Opportunity costs represent the potential benefits which any individual or investor, or  any business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.

Because the opportunity costs are generally unseen by definition, they can be easily overlooked. Understanding of the potential missed opportunities when any business or any individual chooses one investment over another investment allows for better decision making.

To know more about opportunity cost here:

brainly.com/question/13036997

#SPJ4

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