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olchik [2.2K]
3 years ago
8

What term refers to someone engaged in a lawsuit?(U.S.A Government Class)

History
1 answer:
laiz [17]3 years ago
5 0
A litigant is someone engaged in a lawsuit

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Do you think Britain in the 1940s and 1950s was a very tolerant place, why?
Anarel [89]
No they were all about themselves and didn’t care for their colonies their colonies was a way to better their own lives like instead of caring for india their colony at the time they starved the nation to feed their own nation leaving 4 million bengalies to die and when talking about Indians Churchill Britain’s poster child said they were a beastly people with a. Beastly religion and blamed the famine on Indians breeding like rabbits not his greed
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Of the following, Emperor _________ is considered one of the greatest rulers in history
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What was the purpose of earldoms
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Hello Martincoretox9aum, an earl is a member of the nobility. The title is Anglo-Saxon in origin, akin to the Scandinavian form jarl, and meant "chieftain", particularly a chieftain set to rule a territory in a king's stead. In Scandinavia, it became obsolete in the Middle Ages and was replaced by duke (hertig/hertug/hertog). In later medieval Britain, it became the equivalent of the continental count (in England in the earlier period, it was more akin to a duke; in Scotland it assimilated the concept of mormaer). However, earlier in Scandinavia, jarl could also mean a sovereign prince.<span>[citation needed]</span> For example, the rulers of several of the petty kingdoms of Norway had the title of jarl and in many cases they had no less power than their neighbours who had the title of king. Alternative names for the rank equivalent to "Earl/Count" in the nobility structure are used in other countries, such as the hakushaku of the post-restoration Japanese Imperial era.In modern Britain, an earl is a member of the peerage, ranking below a marquess and above a viscount. A feminine form of earl never developed; instead, countess is used.

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4 years ago
How did American politics change after Reconstruction?
MaRussiya [10]
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3 years ago
what does bethel mean when he writes, " if the creoles had one eye on their masters, they kept the other on their servants"?
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

The answer is below

Explanation:

According to Leslie Bethell in his work "Why did the Creoles lead the revolutions in Latin America?" The statement "if the creoles had one eye on their masters, they kept the other on their servants, " implies that the Creoles fully understand the delicate situation of the colonies in which every group was constantly looking for power to override one another.

The masters are the penisulares: the Spanish settlers, while the servants are the mestizos, mulattos, Africans, and other Indian groups. The Creoles wanted to gain and retain political power in the colonies.

6 0
3 years ago
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