1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Assoli18 [71]
3 years ago
7

How was James i's approach to the English monarchy different from that of William of orange

History
1 answer:
svetoff [14.1K]3 years ago
4 0
<span>James was unpopular with the English people due to his Catholic faith.  England was a Protestant nation and they did not want a Catholic to rule due to their fear that their religion will be affected. That’s they invited William of Orange to take the throne.  Since he is Protestant, William was popular with the English since he too was Protestant.</span>
You might be interested in
Why did the author MOST likely use the words ‘a thin veil’ to describe how crimes are covered up? A) to emphasize the face of th
olasank [31]

 The purpose of a veil is to to hide something or to hinder that something can be clearly seen. And when people want to cover up their wrongdoings with an appearence of goodness, they are called hypocrites. By using the words '<em>a thin veil'</em>, the author's intention could be to  show how people see clearly the hypocrisy of the slaveowners.

Answer C.

5 0
3 years ago
In 1892, Captain Richard Pratt said the purpose of Indians Boarding Schools was to "Kill the Indian and Save the Man." What did
LenKa [72]

Answer:

Captain Pratt wanted to use education to uplift and assimilate into the mainstream of American culture.

3 0
3 years ago
World History assignment please help
MaRussiya [10]

Answer:

espanola is the islande that what colanized.

and two thousand people colanized it.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
HURRY PLEASE. will give brainliest if can!What was a cause of the Second Punic War?
Mashcka [7]

Answer:

The causes of the war were a result of both Roman and Carthaginian actions. Both nations took decisive actions that forced them towards the war.

Explanation:

The fault for the beginning of the Second Punic War can not be placed on a single nation. The causes of the war were a result of both Roman and Carthaginian actions. Both nations took decisive actions that forced them towards the war. Although Rome’s actions were not directly offensive, they set up a path for Carthaginians with very few options.

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How did the course of the war affect public opinion, and subsequently British leaders in Britain?
OLEGan [10]

Answer:

lol

Explanation:

5 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • Help me plz right answer only
    14·1 answer
  • Can someone tell me why at a wedding vows have to be said before two people get married. Thank you very much.
    5·1 answer
  • What factors led to ronald reagan's victory in 1980?
    12·1 answer
  • Why is Stephen F. Austin considered the "Father of Texas"?
    10·2 answers
  • Which is NOT cause by light pollution
    12·1 answer
  • Why had the north and south grown part by 1862
    11·2 answers
  • Question 4 please! &lt;3
    9·1 answer
  • What made trade difficult for the United States in 1790. Please help me
    15·1 answer
  • 5 Susie wants to deposit $6,000 into a savings account and plans to leave her money in the account for 10 years. The bank offers
    12·2 answers
  • What caused American trade to be cut off from the central powers during ww1?
    15·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!