Here is how it was explained to me. WW2 was blamed pretty much entirely in Hitler, yes obviously there were so many other factors, and decisions that made the total, destruction of everything, but everyone blames Hitler for the start of it all. In this passage though, it sounds like the blame is on the other political advisers, and his foreign minister. Like they were supposed to have pushed for more meetings, or tried to make Hitler see reason.
Hope that helps
Answer:
false
Explanation:
the british and the french had same goals to claim the teritory
It was better than the English and the Spanish because the french treated them better
The correct answer is B) German-American schools, churches, and magazines largely abandoned the use of the German language.
One effect that World War I had on German Americans was that German-American schools, churches, and magazines largely abandoned the use of the German language.
Without a doubt, the German community in the United States suffered from anti-German sentiments during and after World War 1. US citizens started to demand the ban of the German language in the country. This meant no more German-speaking in schools or churches. Many German sites such as theaters were closed. And people also demanded to stop any kind of publication in German, magazine or newspaper.
Since some of the frontier colonies during this time were free due to the idea of popular sovereignty, some slaves could successfully escape to "free" states and not be forced to return to their home state.
