Answer:
Draw the person's budget constraint with the income guarantee
Answer:
Option B, have the same intercept with a flatter slope; fall.
Explanation:
Option B is correct because a more risk-averse person faces a steeper curve while the less risk-averse person faces a flatter slope. While the more risk-averse person has more return on the stock while the less risk-averse person has less return. Therefore, in the given situation, the SML will have the flatter slope and its return will fall. As it is a less risk-averse investor.
I have personally done that before so yes I think that it's fine to switch around a few words here and there.
Based on the accrual method, the correct entry for $10,000 worth of services would be a debit to accounts receivable for $10,000 and a credit to Sales revenue for $10,000.
<h3>Why is this the correct entry?</h3><h3 />
The company has performed a certain service for a customer and hasn't been paid for it. The customer therefore owes the company which makes them an account receivable.
The $10,000 will be considered revenue by the company so they will credit the revenue account. Accounts Receivables are assets so this account will be debited.
Find out more on accounts receivables at brainly.com/question/24871345.
