Answer:
1/8
Step-by-step explanation:
This is actually pretty easy.
First, you have the sample of the children.
You know that the family with 3 children, can only have the following children:
MMM: all males
MMF: 2 males, 1 female
MFF: 1 male, 2 females
MFM: 2 males, 1 female (different order)
FMM: 1 female, 2 males
FFM: 2 females, 1 male
FMF: 2 females, 1 male
FFF: 3 females
If you count all of these possibilities, we have 8 possible cases of family with the childrens.
In only one of them, we have only females and no males, which is the last one, all 3 females.
Therefore, the probability to select a family with no male, is only 1/8.
1. Collect like terms
(n-0.3n)+(4.5-3)
2. Simplify
0.7n + 1.5
Final Answer:
0.7n + 1.5
9514 1404 393
Answer:
$1487.50
Step-by-step explanation:
The amount of interest due is ...
I = Prt
where P is the loan amount, r is the annual rate, and t is the number of years. Here, t = 6 months = 1/2 year, so the interest due is ...
I = $1400×0.125×1/2 = $87.50
The total amount due is the sum of the loan amount and the interest:
due = $1400 +87.50 = $1487.50
The total amount due after 60 months is $1487.50.
It's 6. 6 times 4 is 24, and 24 minus 10 is 14
It’s less than a positive number
