Answer:
B
Explanation:
Twain's account of Colonel Rall's speech ("full of gunpowder and glory") is contrasted most vividly to the Marion Ranger's collective remorse over the shooting of an unarmed rider.
Answer:
a-1. How long do you have to pay before the account is overdue?
a-2. If you take the full period, how much should you remit?
- if you pay after the discount period (first 30 days) but before the 50th day, you must pay $84,800
b-1. What is the discount being offered?
- 2% if you pay within 30 days
b-2. How quickly must you pay to get the discount?
- you have up to 30 days to pay the invoice and still get the discount
b-3. If you do take the discount, how much should you remit?
c-1. If you don’t take the discount, how much interest are you paying implicitly?
c-2. How many days’ credit are you receiving?
- the total credit period is 50 days
Answer:
a.It provides organizational independence.
Explanation:
Budget is a statement of income and expenditure of a certain period. Budgets are useful for forecasting the operating activities and financial position of a business enterprise and it ensures good business practice because they plan for future.
Organizational independence is a state in which an organization is not vulnerable for personnel turnover. Independent Organizations are normally mon profits or non government organizations and they are defined to be a collection of people who to pursue a charitable goal be it local, national or global level. Budgeting is applicable on dependent organizations instead of independent Organizations.
Answer:
The real risk free rate is 3.8%
The exact risk-free rate is 3.68%
Explanation:
The interest rate on the Treasury bills is usually a combination of real risk free rate and inflation rate to compensate investors for average inflation in the economy during the instrument lifetime which equals nominal risk-free rate.
nominal risk-free rate = real risk-free rate+inflation rate
nominal risk-free rate=7%
inflation rate=3.2%
real risk-free rate=7%-3.2%
real risk-free rate=3.8%
The exact real risk-free rate can be computed thus:
nominal rate+1=(real risk-free rate+1)*(inflation rate+1)
real risk-free rate=(nominal rate+1)/(inflation rate+1)-1
real risk free rate=(1.07/1.032)-1
real risk-free rate=0.036821705
real risk-free rate=3.68%
The correct answer that would best complete the given statement above would be option 1. objective. Based on the given situation above about how Betty's performance was evaluated, Betty experienced an objective appraisal method. It is objective since it is based on graphic rating forms. Hope this answer helps.
